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Question 1:

(Judgment) Back propagation is a common method used to train artificial neural networks.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

What are the processing procedures included in image digitization? (Multiple choices)

A. Binarization

B. Quantification

C. Grayscale transformation

D. Sampling

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 3:

How many brightness changes can a 4-bit image distinguish? (Single choice)

A. 8

B. 16

C. 128

D. 256

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Modifying the H component of the HSV color space will change the image? (Single choice)

A. Hue

B. Brightness

C. Saturation

D. Contrast

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

(Judgment) The background difference method is to use the current frame in the image sequence and the background reference model for subtraction, which can realize the detection of moving objects in the image.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

(Judgment) The image filter operation is also called template operation. The commonly used template operations include template convolution and template sorting.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

What is the use process of ModelArts automatic learning? (Single choice)

A. Deploy online -> Model training -> Data annotation

B. Model training -> data annotation -> deployment online

C. Data annotation -> model training -> deployment online

D. Data annotation -> deployment online -> model training

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

The image target detection algorithm needs to be completed? (Multiple choice)

A. Calculation of target position

B. Judgment of target category

C. Calculation of confidence

D. Calculation of target edge

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 9:

(Judgment) Image feature extraction is a dimensionality reduction idea, which can effectively reduce the amount of image data.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Convolve a pair of three-channel color images with two 3×3 convolution kernels. How many channels does the resulting feature map have? (Single choice)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

What are the speech synthesis methods? (Multiple Choice)

A. Formant synthesizer

B. Series formant synthesizer

C. Parallel formant synthesizer

D. PSOLA method

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 12:

(Judgment) The Gaussian model is to accurately quantify things with a Gaussian density function, and decompose a thing into several models based on Bernoulli distribution.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

What algorithm engines are supported by ModelArts training assignments? (Multiple Choice)

A. PyTorch

B. MXNet

C. Spark MLlib

D. TensorFlow

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 14:

Named entity recognition refers to recognizing entities with specific meanings in the text. Which ones are mainly included? (Multiple Choice)

A. Name

B. Place name

C. Organization name

D. Time

E. Date

Correct Answer: ABCDE


Question 15:

(Judgment) TF-IDF is a calculation method based on statistics, which is often used to evaluate the importance of a word in a document set to all documents.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Which two components are required for committing data to a WORM volume? (Choose two.)

A. You must license SnapLock.

B. You must create a SnapLock volume.

C. You must create a SnapLock SVM.

D. You must create a SnapLock Aggregate.

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=/com.netapp.doc.pow-arch-con% 2FGUID-ABFD860B-BBC5-4F0A-A83F-0942E4C214AA.html


Question 2:

You are setting up replication between two clusters.

In this scenario, which two components are required to set up the cluster peering? (Choose two.)

A. DNS service on each cluster.

B. An intercluster LIF on only the epsilon node.

C. ICMP service between clusters.

D. An intercluster LIF on every node.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://thinksystem.lenovofiles.com/storage/help/topic/ontap_cluster_peering_express_guide/ M_27021470-BC22-4640-923C-8BD12CE66360_.pdf


Question 3:

Your company requires that all data must be encrypted in flight to prevent data from falling into the wrong hands.

What are two ways to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. Ensure that SnapMirror compression is enabled in all SnapMirror relationships.

B. Modify your cluster peering relationships to support cluster peering encryption.

C. Enable Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) for your SnapMirror relationships.

D. Ensure that all intercluster replication traffic is done through a VPN tunnel.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 4:

Click the Exhibit button.

The exhibit shows a Windows 2019 server with two FC HBAs using ALUA. How many paths to LUN1 are active/optimized? (Choose the best answer.)

A. 8

B. 2

C. 1

D. 4

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

What is the default RAID policy for aggregates created with 10 TB disk drives? (Choose the best answer.)

A. RAID4

B. RAID-DP

C. RAID0

D. RAID-TEC

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/topic/com.netapp.doc.dot-cm-psmg/GUID-2808F15F-60574E43-9407-5B3CA274E6C5.html


Question 6:

Your customer has an NTFS volume that they want to access over both SMB and NFS. The client explains that SMB access works fine, but the clients are unable to NFS mount the volume.

What are three reasons that would cause this issue? (Choose three.)

A. There is no export-policy rule for the NFS clients.

B. The NSF server is not configured.

C. Multi-protocol is not licensed on the cluster.

D. The volume security style must be changed to UNIX.

E. The LIF data protocol does not allow NFS.

Correct Answer: ABD

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/topic/com.netapp.doc.exp-multp-cg/GUID-22C99AFB-C64C4E99-8DD0-8F705BC803F8.html


Question 7:

You created a new SVM with two NFS data volumes. You have a Linux host on the same subnet as the SVM that is able to NFS mount, however a Linux host on a different subnet is not able to NFS mount. You confirmed that the export policy rules are correct.

In this scenario, which configuration will solve the mount failure? (Choose the best answer.)

A. The NFS server is not configured on the SVM.

B. NTP is not configured on the SVM.

C. NFS auditing is not enabled on the SVM.

D. The SVM default network route is missing.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Click the Exhibit button.

You have an ONTAP 9.7 cluster. You increased the size of the volume to 3 TB, but the IOPS did not increase as expected.

What are the expected IOPS for the volume after the change? (Choose the best answer)

A. 2048

B. 6144

C. 1024

D. 4096

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://kb.netapp.com/Advice_and_Troubleshooting/Data_Storage_Software/ONTAP_OS/ What_is_Adaptive_QoS_and_how_does_it_work?


Question 9:

Node A has taken over Node B. You solved the issue that caused the takeover and are now ready to resume normal operation.

After initiating the storage failover giveback command, how are the aggregates given back? (Choose the best answer.)

A. CFO aggregates are automatically given back, SFO aggregates must be manually given back.

B. CFO aggregates and SFO aggregates are automatically given back.

C. The root aggregate is automatically given back, CFO and SFO aggregates must be manually given back.

D. SFO aggregates are automatically given back, CFO aggregates must be manually given back.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=/com.netapp.doc.dot-cm-cmpr-960% 2Fstorage__failover__giveback.html


Question 10:

You are asked to delete an SVM that was used for CIFS.

Which two steps must be completed prior to completing this task? (Choose two.)

A. Delete all LIFs from all SVMs.

B. Stop the SVM.

C. Delete all data volumes in the SVM.

D. Delete the CIFS license.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=/com.netapp.doc.onc-sm-help-900% 2FGUID-1286A6CD-2981-444F-97F6-65D65A00D758.html


Question 11:

You want to create a new SVM for serving NFS data using the Storage Virtual Machine (SVM) Setup wizard.

In this scenario, which object is created automatically during the setup process? (Choose the best answer.)

A. a data volume named after the SVM with the suffix _nfs_vol1

B. a data aggregate named after the SVM with the suffix _nfs_aggr1

C. a data LIF named after the SVM with the suffix _nfs_lif

D. an export policy named after the SVM with the suffix _nfs_exp1

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=/com.netapp.doc.exp-nfs-vaai/GUID363E3FA6-DE29-4578-9F45-4D23A6E1E53F.html


Question 12:

Which two protocols does ALUA support on an ONTAP cluster? (Choose two.)

A. iSCSI

B. NVMe

C. FCP

D. NFS

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://library.netapp.com/ecmdocs/ECMP1204463/html/GUID-D7570D36-76FF-4923-8ECC525AF435C2D6.html


Question 13:

Click the Exhibit button.

The exhibit displays the values for the default adaptive QoS policy. An administrator assigns the Value policy to a 1 TB volume. Over time, the volume expands to 3 TB.

What is the peak IOPS for the volume, both before and after the expansion? (Choose the best answer.)

A. 512 IOPS and 512 IOPS

B. 512 IOPS and 1536 IOPS

C. 512 IOPS and 12288 IOPS

D. 75 IOPS and 512 IOPS

Correct Answer: C

Reference: http://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=/com.netapp.doc.pow-perf-mon/GUIDB144F39A-2E14-4048-91CA-D8080C50F70D.html


Question 14:

Click the Exhibit button.

A customer has an issue with performance on an NVMe solution. The SVM is using all four ports shown in the exhibit.

In this scenario, how would the customer improve the host performance? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Change the SFP in the controllers from 32 Gbps to 64 Gbps.

B. Move all of the network interfaces to port 2a.

C. Move some of the network interfaces from 2a to 2c and 2d.

D. Remove support of the FC protocol and only use NVMe.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which two resources are managed by an SVM administrator? (Choose two.)

A. disks

B. aggregates

C. Snapshot copies

D. LUNs

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://thinksystem.lenovofiles.com/storage/help/index.jsp?topic=% 2Fcluster_management_using_thinksystem_storage_manager_for_dm_series_9-6/1A0349D6-AB434D05-9413-EFBB89B847EB_.html


[PDF and VCE] Free Geekcert Oracle 1Z0-970 VCE and PDF, Exam Materials Instant Download

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Question 1:

Which two options should you check for before importing product groups by using File-Based Import? (Choose two.)

A. whether all the required data values are configured and imported in the production instance

B. whether all the products related to the products groups to be imported already exist in the production instance

C. whether the Sales Cloud was customized to capture additional attributes and whether the customization has already been migrated

D. whether all the product groups that are to be imported already exist in the production instance

Correct Answer: AC


Question 2:

What is the out-of-the-box visibility of accounts for sales reps?

A. Sales reps can view all accounts and edit accounts if they are on the account team.

B. Sales reps can view, edit, and delete all accounts.

C. Sales reps can view accounts only if they are owners or are on the Sales team.

D. Sales reps have no access to accounts unless they are on the Account Territory team.

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

You have several consultants working on your implementation in parallel in different sandboxes. Which three steps would you perform to ensure effective customization? (Choose three.)

A. Publish sandboxes before patching events.

B. Publish sandboxes after patching events.

C. Log out and log back in again after a sandbox event (creating, publishing, or existing a sandbox), to clear any user-level caching and ensure that you are working with the latest configurations.

D. Follow this sequence when customizing: Create sandboxes for UI customizations first, then for objects, and finally for the relationships of those objects.

E. Follow this sequence when customizing: Create sandboxes for objects first, then for the relationships of those objects, and finally for UI customizations.

Correct Answer: BCE


Question 4:

Your customer has thousands of products and would like to migrate from his legacy system to Oracle Sales Cloud. Which statement is true regarding Importing Product Groups?

A. The import procedures are covered in the topic, Importing Product Groups.

B. You\’ll create only the root group in the UI and import the rest.

C. You\’ll create all of the subgroups (under the root group) manually in the UI.

D. You can directly import an entire product group along with a root group.

Correct Answer: B

Reference https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E60269_01/latest/E38328_01/salescs_gs/FASMC_eng/F1287486AN1365A.htm


Question 5:

OSC Party Export provides information about ____________________.

A. all Organizations and Contacts

B. all Organizations, Contacts, and Users

C. all users

D. all Organizations

Correct Answer: D

Reference https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/customer-data-management/r13-update17d/faudm/managing-party-information.html#FAUDM598171


Question 6:

After defining the geography structure of a country, which three steps should be performed in order to create addresses?

A. If you are using geography data other than Nokia, import it by using the Import option of the Manage Geographies task.

B. Check if Nokia data is available for the required country and import the data by using the Import Nokia Data option in the Actions menu.

C. If you are using geography data other than Nokia, import it by using the Manage File Import Activities task.

D. For any geography data, validate the geography hierarchy data by using the Manage Geography Hierarchy option from the Actions menu in the Manage Geographies task.

E. Configure geography validation in the Manage Geographies task to determine geography behavior during the process of address creation or update.

Correct Answer: ABE

Reference https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/customer-data-management/r13-update17d/faudm/importing-geographies.html#FAUDM889714


Question 7:

Identify the correct statement related to adjusting threshold in sales quota.

A. The territory owner can allocate the adjusted territory quota to child territories only in certain conditions.

B. Compensation plan gets automatically updated based on adjustment threshold in sales quota.

C. The territory owner can allocate the adjusted territory quota to child territories.

D. The territory owner cannot allocate the adjusted territory quota to child territories.

E. The territory owner can allocate the adjusted territory quota to child territories only in the next financial cycle.

Correct Answer: C

Reference https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/sales/r13-update17d/oasal/setting-up-quotas.html#OASAL54650


Question 8:

In Data Quality Management, for which three entities are real-time and batch matching available? (Choose three.)

A. Opportunity

B. Location

C. Person

D. Organization

E. Lead

Correct Answer: BCD

Reference https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/sales/r13-update17d/oacdm/define-data-quality.html#OACDM1436853


Question 9:

Before your company upgrades the production environment, it must go through an UAT process in an upgraded test environment. Which three conditions must be met before the UAT can begin? (Choose three.)

A. Test cases targeted for execution have been executed

B. User sign-off has occurred

C. Sanity testing is complete

D. The production to test (P2T) content migration is complete

E. The test environment is stable and ready for testing

F. Defects are logged and prioritized

Correct Answer: BCE


Question 10:

Which three options would you configure to validate geography in the Manage Geographies task? (Choose three.)

A. Configure rules to determine that an address is a legitimate address.

B. Use Geography Validation Control to avoid or allow recording an incorrect address.

C. Enable Geography Validation for every geography type that you plan to validate.

D. Standardize the address.

E. Enable a list of values in the geography type to allow users to select a value from the list.

Correct Answer: BCE

Reference https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/sales/18b/oacdm/define-geographies.html#OACDM1478836


Question 11:

Which four key attributes can you configure to reference customers in Oracle Sales Cloud? (Choose four.)

A. Reference association with Lead: In the references UI, the Lead tab displays all Leads where the reference customer was used.

B. Reference association with Opportunity: In the references UI, the Opportunity tab displays all Opportunities where the reference customer was used.

C. Collateral: Associates collateral with reference customers to give salespeople materials to help them make sales.

D. References profile: Stores and maintains the reference customer profile, which also displays some underlying party-specific attributes and lists the deals the reference has already participated in.

E. Status: Indicates whether or not the customer is an active reference.

F. Rank: Designates the internal ranking of the customer, such as 1, 2, or 3.

Correct Answer: BCEF

Referene https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E48434_01/doc.1118/e49570/F1159749AN1A3C5.htm


Question 12:

Which two Customer Center Profile Options would be used to automatically assign Territories to Accounts? (Choose two.)

A. ZCA_SA_AUTO_ASSIGN_ON_CREATE

B. Territories must be manually assigned to Accounts

C. ZCA_SA_TERRITORY_ASSIGNMENT

D. ZCA_SA_AUTO_ASSIGN_ON_UPDATE

E. MOO_AUTO_ASSIGN

Correct Answer: AD

Reference https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/r13_update17c/salescs_gs/OASAL/OASAL1439686.htm#OASAL1439686


Question 13:

Your customer sells cars across the United States. The customer now wants to split the East region to measure quota and manage closed opportunities in order to specialize its sales team in a Public Sector Territory and a Financial Sector.

The customer wants to add two territories to the Public Sector Territory, for example, Treasure Department and Citizen Services, and dedicate specialized sales personnel to service them. Other institutions are not to be assigned to these territories.

How would you set this up?

A. You must use a geographic dimension to the US East region, a Car product dimension, and an included customer coverage type to define Treasure Department, and then assign sales people to this territory. Use the same steps for Citizen Services, but use an included customer coverage type to include Citizen Services.

B. You must use a geographic dimension to the US East region, a Car product dimension, and an excluded customer coverage type to define Citizen Services and exclude Treasure Department. Then you assign sales people to this territory. Use the same steps for Treasure Department, but use an excluded coverage type to exclude Citizen Services.

C. You must use a geographic dimension to the US East region, a Car product dimension, and an included

D. customer coverage type to define Citizen Services, and then assign sales people to this territory. Use the same steps for Treasure Department, but use an excluded customer coverage type to exclude Citizen Services.

E. You must use a geographic dimension to the US East region, a Car product dimension, and an included customer coverage type to define Treasure Department, and then assign sales people to this territory. Use the same steps for Citizen Services, but use an excluded customer coverage type to exclude Treasure Department.

F. You must use a geographic dimension to the US East region, a Car product dimension, and a Treasure Department customer name dimension, and then assign sales people to this territory. Use the same steps for the Citizen Services territory.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

What should you do when trying to evaluate if there are any conflicts in a territory structure?

A. You would be required to first run the Stage and Promote process.

B. Click the Conflict Resolution button from the Enable Dimensions and Metrics page.

C. You must first export the structure by clicking Actions, and then selecting Export to Excel.

D. Highlight the top-level territory, click Actions, and then select View Overlaps.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which four elements of the Sales Methodology can you configure for each sales stage? (Choose four.)

A. Sales Credit -By allocating sales credit to salespeople on revenue lines, you can capture the amount of credit salespeople receive for the sale.

B. Task templates -You can define task templates to set tasks for salespeople to perform.

C. Revenue model -Revenue model that features revenue-based forecasting, products and product groups, as well as revenue data captured at the line level.

D. Action items -These are recommended actions the salesperson should take while working on an opportunity in a specific sales stage.

E. Assessment templates -Assessments let salespeople evaluate the health of an opportunity.

F. Recommended documents -These are documents recommended for viewing or sharing during a specific sales stage.

Correct Answer: BDEF

Reference https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/sales/r13-update17d/oasal/setting-up-opportunities.html#OASAL1635581


Free Share Geekcert HP HPE6-A47 Exam Dumps and Practice Questions and Answers

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Question 1:

Which guidelines should an architect use to determine how many AirWave servers to recommend?

A. One server should be deployed on every subnet with an infrastructure device.

B. One server is recommended for the base features and one server each for add-on features such as Clarity.

C. One server should be dedicated to the wired infrastructure and one server to the wireless infrastructure.

D. One server should monitor and manage up to about 4,000 infrastructure devices.

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

An architect plant to purpose an Aruba wireless solution with several Mobility Controllers (MCs) and a Mobility Master (MM) architecture. Wireless users run Skype for Business, a Unified Communications (UC) solution. The architect plans to use the Aruba SDN capabilities to integrate with the UC solution.

What helps to support high availability specifically for the SDN services?

A. a redundant master MC

B. backup controllers defines on the APs

C. a cluster deployment for MCs

D. a redundant MM

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

Exhibit 1 shows the logical plan, and Exhibit 2 shows the BOM created with IRIS. An architect plans to propose two 5406Rzl switches as a VSF fabric for a campus network core. Which issue with the plan should the architect correct?

A. Add two QSPF MP0 SR4 transceivers.

B. Change the v2 modules to v3 modules.

C. Add stacking modules and cables.

D. Change the power supply type.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

An architect needs to plan the bandwidth for two Aruba 7240 Mobility Controllers (MCs) which will connect to the network core. The customer indicates that four 10 GbE links between the network core and the data center will be adequate. The customer expects almost all traffic in the network will be wireless. The customer expects up to 25 Gbps upstream traffic from wireless clients and up to 35 Gbps downstream to wireless clients. The customer requires the MCs to be able to continue to forward traffic if up to one link fails, but lower performance during the failover situation is permissible.

What are the minimal links to meet these requirements?

A. two 10 GbE links on each of the MC

B. two 40 GbE links in each of the MCs

C. three 10 GbE links on each of the MCs

D. four 10 GbE links on each of the MCs.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

An architect learns that a customer site is 14,307 square meters (154,000 square feet) and supports 900 employees using WiFi 5 Ghz radio. What additional information should the architect collect to create the RF plan?

A. number of devices used by each user

B. the OS used on wireless devices

C. whether BLE wayfinding is required

D. software version on Mobility Controllers (MCs)

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

An architect needs to help a customer design a management and monitoring solution for an Aruba network

in an airport. The solution consists of an Aruba Mobility Master (MM), Aruba 7210 MCs, Aruba AP-335s,

and Aruba 5496R switches.

The architect plans to recommend Aruba AirWare.

The airport has a high-client device turnover and many highly mobile devices. Which changes should the

architect make to the recommended solution based on this characteristic?

A. Recommend additional hardware resources beyond those recommended for the typical tested AirWare platform.

B. Recommend extra AirWare device licenses to support the changing number of client devices.

C. Recommend Aruba Central with a Clarity subscription as a more flexible cloud-based solution.

D. Recommend Aruba Central with guest access licensing to increase guest visibility.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

An architect proposes four 7210 Mobility Controllers (MCs) to support about 1,500 client APs. The customer environment will have a maximum of about 20,000 wireless clients. The customer wants hardware MMs with an active and standby deployment.

What is the minimum solution that meets the customer requirements?

A. two MM-HW-10K appliances

B. two MM-HW-5K appliances

C. four MM HW-5K appliances

D. four MM HW-10K appliances

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

A customer needs a solution to terminate VPN tunnels for Aruba RAPs. The customer has a single site and a single public IP address for this purpose. Network address translation (NAT) will forward the IPsec traffic to the correct device to terminate the VPN tunnel. The customer also requires N 1 redundancy for the solution.

Which solution meets the customer requirements?

A. two Aruba MCs on the same subnet that use VRRP without clustering

B. two Aruba MCs deployed as a Layer 3 cluster

C. two Aruba MCs on different subnets that use VRRP without clustering

D. two Aruba MCs deployed as a Layer 2 cluster

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

An architect needs to plan the RF coverage.

Which application has the greatest potential impact on RF design?

A. print

B. email

C. voice

D. secure web browsing

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

The customer has an office environment with users who have laptops that can connect with wired or wireless. Users also bring one or two of their own devices. An architect creates a proposal with Aruba AP325s, 7210 Mobility Controllers (MCs), a Mobility Master (MM), and Aruba 2930M switches at the access layer to support the laptops and APs.

The architect plans to recommend 802.1X authentication without tunneled node on Aruba 2930M switch ports that connect to laptops.

What is one advantage of this form of authentication?

A. ensures that Aruba firewall policies apply to wired user traffic.

B. prevents users from connection attempts with more than three devices

C. enables user access control and ensures only authorized users connect.

D. provides a second layer of protection for wireless users at the internal perimeter

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

An architect proposes an Aruba solution with a hardware Mobility Master (MM) to a customer. The customer has a disaster recovery site which is connected to the main site at Layer 3. The customer requires the MM to remain available in case of a total site failure.

Which plan meets the customer requirements?

A. Deploy a hardware MM to the disaster recovery site and set up VRRP between them.

B. Deploy a hardware MM to the disaster recovery site and set its IP address as the standby master for MCs.

C. Deploy the virtual MM (VMM) to the disaster recovery site and set the VMM IP address to the same address as the hardware MM.

D. Deploy the virtual MM (VMM) to the disaster recovery site and configure clustering on the hardware and software appliances.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

A customer requires APs that meet these minimal criteria:

1.

Support for MU-MIMO

2.

Support for up to four spatial streams, both when MU-MIMO is used and when it is not used

3.

Support for transmissions to up to three MU-MIMO clients at the same time

The architect finds these specifications for the two models under consideration: AP-335 = 4×4:4:4:4:3 AP-325 = 4×4:4:4:3:3

What should the architect determine from these specifications?

A. The AP 335 and the AP 325 do not meet the customer requirements, so consider a different model.

B. The AP 325 meets the customer requirements, but the AP 335 does not.

C. Either the AP 335 or the AP 325 meet the customer requirements.

D. The AP 335 meets the customer requirements, but the AP 325 does not.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

What typically drives the need for an aggregation layer in modern networks?

A. insufficient fiber cabling, especially between buildings

B. lack of high speed uplink capabilities at the access layer

C. simplification of spanning tree protocol ad the access layer

D. need to extend VLANs across wider areas

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

A customer needs a networking solution that supports their Microsoft Skype for Business Unified

Communications (UC) solution. The architect plans to use multiple Aruba APs, switches, and controllers.

The customer wants real time statistics and assessment of call quality.

Which component should the architect include to provide these services?

A. Aruba AirWare

B. Aruba Central

C. Aruba Mobility Master (MM)

D. Aruba ClearPass

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

An architect proposes the following Aruba solutions:

1.

Two Virtual Mobility Masters (VMMs)

2.

Six 7030 Mobility Controllers (MCs)

3.

300 APs

In addition to any necessary AP, PEF, and RFP licenses, which license package should the architect propose?

A. six LIC-MM-VA-50

B. one LIC-MC-VA-250 and one LIC-MC-VA-50; one LIC-MM-VA-500

C. one LIC-MM-VA-500

D. one LIC-MC-VA-250 and one LIC-MC-VA-50; six LIC-MM-VA-500

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

How can a list be sorted to display more frequent values first?

A. In the Data Modeler, set the sequence order in the properties of the List field.

B. Values can only be sorted in ascending and descending order and cannot be ordered individually.

C. In the Form layout, use the Manual Sort option to arrange the entries in the desired order sequence.

D. In the List Manager, use arrows from the Order column to move entries to the desired order sequence.

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Which statement is true when defining an Include association?

A. The association from the child to the parent must be defined with the child in an editable state.

B. The association from the parent to the child must be defined with the parent in an editable state.

C. The association from the parent to the child must be defined with both the parent and the child in an editable state.

D. The association from the child to the parent must be defined with both the parent and the child in an editable state.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

In the Data Modeler\’s Association List what does a red star next to the association indicate?

A. The association is used in a smart section.

B. The association is a dependent association.

C. The association is referenced by a locator field.

D. The association is referenced by a required field.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

An extended formula can be created for which two data types? (Choose two.)

A. Text

B. Date

C. Number

D. Boolean

E. Classification

Correct Answer: BC


Question 5:

A customer has complained that an error message is showing up after they close and reopen the form. It is discovered that a synchronous workflow controls the error message process.

What should be changed so that the error message displays while the form is open?

A. Change the synchronous workflow to use temporary data.

B. Change the synchronous workflow to use permanent data.

C. Change the synchronous workflow to trigger from a state action.

D. Change the synchronous workflow to an asynchronous workflow.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A workflow needs to perform a sequence of tasks many times for a finite set of records. Which workflow task should be used?

A. Iter task

B. Modify Records task

C. Retrieve Records task

D. Get Temp Record task

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

How can the progress of a Data Integrator file upload be monitored in IBM TR1RIGA Application Platform V3.2 (TRIRIGA)?

A. The TRIRIGA Admin Console: Error Logs > Process Error Log

B. The TRIRIGA Admin Console: Managed Objects > System Manager

C. The TRIRIGA application menu: Tools > Administration > Data Integrator

D. The TRIRIGA application menu: Tools > System Setup > System > Data Upload

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

In the Data Modeler under the Tools menu, which option defines the Publish Name?

A. Publish BO

B. BO Mapping

C. Display Sequence

D. BO State Transition

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

A change is made in a state transition configuration in Data Modeler but it has not carried over correctly at runtime. Why?

A. The developer did not import the state transition in Data Modeler.

B. The developer did not click Apply in the state transition properties.

C. The developer did not publish the form of the base business object (BO).

D. The developer did not make the change in the base BO in Data Modeler.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

After making a change in a form, what action must be selected to make the change visible to end users?

A. Reset

B. Publish

C. Preview

D. Validate

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which list shows valid report types when creating a new report in the Report Manager?

A. Report, Chart, Plot

B. Chart, Plot, Summary

C. Report, Plot, Summary

D. Report, Chart, Summary

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

What is the required action to trigger an onChange event?

A. A state transition action is clicked.

B. The field value is changed by a workflow.

C. A field value is changed by a Data Integrator.

D. The user removing the focus from a field after changing its value

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

A text field on a form cannot display all of the characters in its value in a single line. How can the visible portion of the field be enlarged on the form?

A. Adjust the size value for this field in Data Modeler

B. Adjust the minimum size setting for this field in Form Builder

C. Adjust the result column setting for this field in Data Modeler

D. Adjust the column and/or row span settings for this field in Form Builder

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

How are runtime filters created?

A. By selecting the appropriate Module, Business Object, and Field in the Advanced tab.

B. By checking the Prompt Before Query check box on the Options sub tab of the General tab.

C. By checking the box marked User and setting the appropriate filter operator for the desired field.

D. By checking the box marked System with a keyword of $$RUNTIME$$ as the value for the desired field

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

If a field is set to Read Only in a business object (BO), how does it affect a form based on that BO?

A. The field will not be allowed to be used in the form.

B. The field will have the Read Only box checked by default in the form, but it can be changed.

C. The field will have the Read Only box checked by default in the form, but it cannot be changed.

D. The field will not be set to Read Only in the form, and the field will have to be set to Read Only.

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Which tool enables partners to perform the following actions?

a) validate all parameters (for example, number of inbound agents, number of inbound and outbound IVR ports, and so on) of a target Cisco Unified Contact Center Express configuration

b) recommend servers based on the validated configuration (a prerequisite for the Cisco assessment-to-quality bid assurance process)

A. Cisco Solution Expert Tool

B. Cisco Unified CCX Sizing Tool

C. Cisco Unified Communications Sizing Tool

D. Cisco Unified t Expert Advisor Tool

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which two Cisco Unified CCX steps invoke another Unified CCX application script? (Choose two.)

A. Cache Document

B. Trigger Application

C. On Exception Goto

D. Call Subflow

E. Connect

Correct Answer: BD


Question 3:

Which three tasks are required to deploy a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express application? (Choose three.)

A. create a trigger

B. upload script to repository

C. restart the Cisco Unified CCX Engine

D. specify the maximum number of sessions

E. configure default session timeout

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 4:

The Agent email feature is available in which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express packages?

A. Premium and Enhanced

B. Premium, Enhanced, and Standard

C. Premium only

D. Premium and Standard

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

What is the minimum package that is required to develop a Cisco Unified Intelligence Center custom report for a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express deployment?

A. Cisco Unified Intelligence Center Standard

B. Cisco Unified Intelligence Center Premium

C. Cisco Unified CCX Enhanced

D. Cisco Unified CCX Premium

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

What is the purpose of relative filters?

A. to report on previous port usage

B. to generate historical and real-time reports for the previous week

C. to filter spam emails from reaching the email queues

D. to generate historical time reports for the previous week

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

In Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Serviceability, what is the status of the database subsystem on the Control Center page, if the database subsystem in not configured?

A. shut down

B. out of service

C. partial service

D. not configured

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Which three things cannot be validated by using the Cisco Unified Communications Sizing Tool in a Cisco Unified CCX deployment configuration? (Choose three.)

A. number of silent-monitoring and remote-monitoring sessions

B. bandwidth requirement between Cisco Unified CCX and SocialMiner in an agent web chat deployment

C. number of historical reporting sessions

D. bandwidth requirement for remote agents who are connected over a WAN to Cisco Unified CCX

E. number of ASR and TTS ports

F. bandwidth requirement between two Cisco Unified CCX nodes in a high availability over WAN deployment

Correct Answer: BDF


Question 9:

A customer purchases 200 Cisco Unified Center Express Premium agent seats In order to run a 30-port outbound IVR campaign, which two addition items must the customer purchase?

A. a router

B. a gateway

C. 30 outbound IVR ports

D. 30 agent seats

E. 15 agent seats

Correct Answer: BC


Question 10:

Which action enables a contact center supervisor to access and monitor live data reports for multiple teams?

A. Take no action, because a supervisor cannot monitor more than one team.

B. Assign the supervisor as primary superior for one of the teams and as secondary supervisor for other relevant teams.

C. Assign the supervisor as primary supervisor for all the relevant teams.

D. Add the supervisor as a member of all the relevant teams.

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

You are designing a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express system with four requirements:

250 configured agents 150 agents maximum logged in at any given time 30 agents able to make outbound calls 20 agents able to answer emails

How many premium seats should be purchased?

A. 150 seats

B. 180 seats

C. 200 seats

D. 250 seats

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

A preview outbound dialer uses which source and destination resources?

A. a CTI port to the customer

B. the ACD line of the agent to the customer

C. the personal line of the agent to the customer

D. a CTI port to the agent, then redirected to the customer

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

An organization wants to collect an account number from a customer via IVR prompting.

Then, using a keystroke macro, the customer wants to insert the account number into the account number field in the agent\’s CRM desktop application.

The keystroke macro will also initiate the CRM desktop application, executing a database lookup from the CRM Database server to retrieve the customer record.

Assuming the organization wants the lowest cost solution, what product does this organization need for this capability?

A. Cisco Unified CCX Standard

B. Cisco Unified CCX Enhanced

C. Cisco Unified CCX Premium

D. Cisco Unified CCX Enterprise

E. Cisco Unified IP IVR

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

What is the maximum number of agent web chat sessions that is supported on the highest class server?

A. 25

B. 50

C. 75

D. 100

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

In a typical Cisco Unified CCX agent web chat deployment for an online retail shop, Cisco Social- Miner can be deployed in which location?

A. Internet

B. demilitarized zone

C. corporate network

D. wherever the Cisco Unified CCX server is deployed

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

It has been reported to you that someone has caused an information spillage on their computer. You go to the computer, disconnect it from the network, remove the keyboard and mouse, and power it down. What step in incident handling did you just complete?

A. Containment

B. Eradication

C. Recovery

D. Discovery

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

What is the code written for?

A. Buffer Overflow

B. Encryption

C. Bruteforce

D. Denial-of-service (Dos)

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

An enterprise recently moved to a new office and the new neighborhood is a little risky. The CEO wants to monitor the physical perimeter and the entrance doors 24 hours. What is the best option to do this job?

A. Use fences in the entrance doors.

B. Install a CCTV with cameras pointing to the entrance doors and the street.

C. Use an IDS in the entrance doors and install some of them near the corners.

D. Use lights in all the entrance doors and along the company\’s perimeter.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Which of the following is the most important phase of ethical hacking wherein you need to spend considerable amount of time?

A. Gaining access

B. Escalating privileges

C. Network mapping

D. Footprinting

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

It is a short-range wireless communication technology that allows mobile phones, computers and other devices to connect and communicate. This technology intends to replace cables connecting portable devices with high regards to security.

A. Bluetooth

B. Radio-Frequency Identification

C. WLAN

D. InfraRed

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Knowing the nature of backup tapes, which of the following is the MOST RECOMMENDED way of storing backup tapes?

A. In a cool dry environment

B. Inside the data center for faster retrieval in a fireproof safe

C. In a climate controlled facility offsite

D. On a different floor in the same building

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Security and privacy of/on information systems are two entities that requires lawful regulations. Which of the following regulations defines security and privacy controls for Federal information systems and organizations?

A. NIST SP 800-53

B. PCI-DSS

C. EU Safe Harbor

D. HIPAA

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

You are about to be hired by a well known Bank to perform penetration tests. Which of the following documents describes the specifics of the testing, the associated violations, and essentially protects both the bank\’s interest and your liabilities as a tester?

A. Service Level Agreement

B. Non-Disclosure Agreement

C. Terms of Engagement

D. Project Scope

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

The practical realities facing organizations today make risk response strategies essential. Which of the following is NOT one of the five basic responses to risk?

A. Accept

B. Mitigate

C. Delegate

D. Avoid

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

A company recently hired your team of Ethical Hackers to test the security of their network systems. The company wants to have the attack be as realistic as possible. They did not provide any information besides the name of their company. What phase of security testing would your team jump in right away?

A. Scanning

B. Reconnaissance

C. Escalation

D. Enumeration

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

TCP/IP stack fingerprinting is the passive collection of configuration attributes from a remote device during standard layer 4 network communications. Which of the following tools can be used for passive OS fingerprinting?

A. nmap

B. ping

C. tracert

D. tcpdump

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Backing up data is a security must. However, it also have certain level of risks when mishandled. Which of the following is the greatest threat posed by backups?

A. A backup is the source of Malware or illicit information

B. A backup is incomplete because no verification was performed

C. A backup is unavailable during disaster recovery

D. An unencrypted backup can be misplaced or stolen

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Which of the following tools is used by pen testers and analysts specifically to analyze links between data using link analysis and graphs?

A. Metasploit

B. Wireshark

C. Maltego

D. Cain and Abel

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

If you are to determine the attack surface of an organization, which of the following is the BEST thing to do?

A. Running a network scan to detect network services in the corporate DMZ

B. Reviewing the need for a security clearance for each employee

C. Using configuration management to determine when and where to apply security patches

D. Training employees on the security policy regarding social engineering

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

What is the best Nmap command to use when you want to list all devices in the same network quickly after you successfully identified a server whose IP address is 10.10.0.5?

A. nmap -T4 -F 10.10.0.0/24

B. nmap -T4 -q 10.10.0.0/24

C. nmap -T4 -O 10.10.0.0/24

D. nmap -T4 -r 10.10.1.0/24

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Your organization is planning for a periodic counting of individual items throughout the year. As part of this activity, the user has loaded items to the cycle count but some of the items are not being considered when count schedules and count sequences are generated. Which reason explains why the items are not being considered?

A. The Include in Schedule option is not selected to include the item for auto-scheduling.

B. The Cycle Count Enabled flag is not selected for the item.

C. The approval controls are not set up.

D. The Cycle Count Enabled flag is not selected for the inventory organization.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Your company is an automobile spares manufacturing organization, which follows a discrete process. It has its own manufacturing and distribution centers located globally. It has these business units: US – USA business unit CAN – Canadian business unit UK – UK business unit MX – Mexican business unit IND – India business unit SPA – Spain business unit FRA – France business unit NL – Netherlands business unit GER – Germany business unit These are the inventory organizations that exist in each business unit: Inventory Org – business unit

GM (Master Org) – US US1 (Child Org) – US US2 (Child Org) – US CA1 (Child Org) – CAN MX1 (Child Org) – MX IN1 (Child Org) – IND SP1 (Child Org) – SPA FR1 (Child Org) – FRA NL1 (Child Org) – NL DE1 (Child Org) – GER

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Items defined in the GM organization can be assigned to US1,US2, NL1, and MX1 inventory organizations.

B. You can define an item in the IN1 inventory organization and assign it to the DE1 inventory organization.

C. Item organizations are also supported to serve as inventory organizations.

D. Operational Attributes can be controlled only at the Master Level.

E. All inventory organizations do not need to be in the same business unit to assign items.

F. Items cannot be assigned to inventory organizations across business units.

Correct Answer: AE


Question 3:

Which three statements about the main areas of Managerial Accounting are correct? (Choose three.)

A. Landed Cost Management gives organizations financial visibility into their extended supply chain costs.

B. Supply Chain Orchestration automatically selects the correct process based on user-defined subleadger accounting rules when a supply creation is initiated.

C. Receipt Accounting is the application that performs the accrual accounting for all types of receipts.

D. Cost method can be defined granularity down to individual items.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 4:

You have set up min-max planning at the subinventory level with the following to source item AS12312 for Organization: M1: Source Type: Organization Organization: M1 What type of supply request will be generated?

A. Purchase Requisition

B. Internal Requisition

C. None; this is an invalid setup

D. Intraorganization transfer order

E. Movement request

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Which attribute value allows usage of common inventory for project specific demand?

A. Allow use of common supplies : No and Hard Pegging Level : Project Group

B. Allow use of common supplies : Null and Hard Pegging Level : Project Group

C. Allow use of common supplies : No and Hard Pegging Level : Project and Task

D. Allow use of common supplies : Null and Hard Pegging Level : None

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

You set up an item organization and an inventory organization as part of your customer\’s requirement. Your customer has, by mistake, performed a receipt transaction in the item organization instead of the inventory organization. How wiil you rectify the error?

A. Perform a correct receipt transaction and receive the item in the correct organization.

B. Perform a return of item and receive the item again in the correct organization.

C. It is not possible to receive item in the item organization.

D. Perform a new receipt in the correct organization and retain the stock in item organization because it does not affect any other operation.

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Your client wants certain inventory items of high importance to be counted periodically to improve the

average level of inventory accuracy.

What type of counting would you recommend?

A. Serialized Count

B. Manual Count

C. Cycle Count

D. Zero Quantity Count

E. Blind Count

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which three statements about project specific picking process are correct? (Choose three.)

A. Shipment lines with project task can be created in shipping organization not enabled for projects.

B. Picks can be searched by project and task number.

C. Pick release of movement request allocates common inventory prior to project specific inventory.

D. Picks with same project and task can be grouped to single pick slip.

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 9:

Your customer is a very large organization spanning across multiple countries. Their legal requirements,

Human Resource Policies, and Functional Currencies for Ledger are different for each country. Your

customer wants to maintain 10 different companies in the system.

Which combination meets this requirement?

A. 1 Enterprise, 10 Divisions, where each division has its own legal entity and ledger

B. 10 Enterprises, 10 Divisions, where each division has its own legal entity and ledger

C. 1 Enterprise, 10 Divisions, where each division has its own ledger with common legal entity across all divisions

D. 10 Enterprises, 1 Division, where each division has 10 legal entities and 1 ledger

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

While negotiating the terms of the consignment agreement, the buyer and the supplier mutually agree to set the aging onset point as receipt and the aging period as five days. The terms also say that the consumption advice will be generated daily. In which three scenarios will the goods be transferred from the supplier\’s ownership to buyer\’s ownership? (Choose three.)

A. You received the goods today and after three days you transfer the ownership using the “create transfer to consigned transaction” task.

B. You received the goods today and after six days you decide to transfer the ownership using the “create transfer to consigned transaction” task.

C. You received the goods today and you decide to issue the goods after three days without transferring the ownership.

D. You received the goods today and after four days you return the material to the supplier.

E. You received the goods today and for the next one week you do not plan any action on the same.

F. You received the goods today and you transfer the ownership using the “create transfer to owned transaction” task.

Correct Answer: CEF


Question 11:

A shipment has not yet been created for a pick that you are running. How is the due date calculated?

A. system date

B. request date from the order line

C. schedule ship date from the order line

D. earliest acceptable date from the order line

E. promise date from the order line

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Your organization has lot controlled and non-lot controlled material and stores all defective material in a

subinventory called “Defect.” The organization does not want defective material to be available for

reservations or for subsequent shipping to customers.

Which option satisfies this requirement?

A. Put a hold on the lot.

B. Disallow all inventory transactions for the subinventory “Defect.”

C. Assign the subinventory a material status that disallows reservations and allows subinventory transfers and issues to scrap.

D. Tag the lot as defective product.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Which three things are true about running the Min-Max Report? (Choose three.)

A. The system calculates demand quantity by using information from existing sales orders, transfer orders, work orders and movement requests.

B. You can run the report by item category.

C. The Min-Max Replenishment ignores Item Processing Lead-time on Transfer orders.

D. You can run the report or both Organizations and Subinventory Planning Levels simultaneously.

E. You can suppress replenishment movement request when the source subinventory has zero item on-hand quantity.

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 14:

Your customer is managing a large sales team divided in two different geographies in the USA

They have the East Coast sales team and the Central sales team. Both teams are handled by one

manager and perform the same function.

You customer wants to track the expenses of the two teams separately; however, they do not consider

them different as they are handled by one manager only.

How will you fulfill the requirement?

A. Define them as one department and one cost center.

B. Define them as a single department and two separate cost centers.

C. Define them as two separate departments and a single cost center.

D. It is not possible to fulfill the requirement.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Material is transferred between two subinventories within an organization via transfer order. The setup is complete and the transfer order is created through the FBDI process. What is the primary interface data that needs to be completed in the template?

A. INV_TRANSACTION_LOTS_INTERFACE

B. INV_SERIAL_NUMBERS_INTERFACE

C. INV_SUBINVENTORY_TRANSFER

D. CST_I_INCOMING_TXN_COSTS

E. INV_TRANSACTIONS_INTERFACE

Correct Answer: E


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Question 1:

Due to recent data protection legislation, your client has asked how to protect the integrity of their z/OS audit records. What system function should be recommended?

A. Pervasive Encryption

B. zSecure Audit

C. Crypto Express adapter

D. Signed SMF data

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.google.com/url?sa=tandrct=jandq=andesrc=sandsource=webandcd=9andved=2ahUKEwjhlanup43mAhUvsaQKHf0KCcoQFjAIegQIBRACandurl=https://www.ibm.com/downloads/cas% 2FPLERXQDQandusg=AOvVaw23CLCcjsZJ3CmdxQFan2Wr


Question 2:

Which IBM Cloud offering relies on Secure Service Container (SSC) for its security?

A. IBM Cloud DevOps

B. IBM Cloud Secure Virtualization

C. IBM Cloud Provisioning and Management

D. IBM Blockchain Platform

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

A customer has a new z14 and would like Container Pricing for the z/OS system based on their monthly usage. How will the pricing be based through Resourcelink tables?

A. MIPS

B. LSPR

C. ITRR

D. MSU

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www-01.ibm.com/common/ssi/ShowDoc.wss?docURL=/common/ssi/rep_ca/8/897/ENUS118-018/index.htmlandrequest_locale=en


Question 4:

Which of the following best describes the term “RPO”?

A. The point at which the data is in a consistent state at both the primary and the backup sites.

B. The point at which the business declares a disaster.

C. The point at which GDPS software begins automatic failover.

D. The point at which the age of data at the backup site is acceptable.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://searchstorage.techtarget.com/feature/What-is-the-difference-between-RPO-and-RTO-from-a-backup-perspective


Question 5:

Intel marketing argues that their chip-based encryption is equivalent to IBM Z Systems capability.

As it relates to Pervasive Encryption, which of the following statements most accurately counters this Intel-centric claim?

A. Coupling IBM Pervasive Encryption with Intel encryption is sufficient as Intel exploitation requires no application changes

B. Intel encryption requires application changes

C. Intel encryption established parity with the IBM Z High Performance Bulk Data Encryption capability

D. IBM Pervasive Encryption leverages Full Disk Encryption (FDE) within their Intel servers

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A client has a production data center and disaster recovery data center separated by more than 300 km. What level of recovery can they achieve by using GDPS/GM (Global Mirror)?

A. RPO = 0, RTO = 0

B. RPO = 0, RTO > 0

C. RPO > 0, RTO = 0

D. RPO > 0, RTO > 0

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.ibm.com/downloads/cas/RJNOXAGZ


Question 7:

A z/OS customer is concerned about complying with privacy rules.

How is the concept of Pervasive Encryption a potential solution to address the concern?

A. It is implemented without application or database changes.

B. It is implemented by only requiring database changes.

C. It is implemented by requiring application changes.

D. It is implemented by encrypting only the data at rest.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.ibm.com/downloads/cas/04WL0WAJ


Question 8:

In an environment with one IBM z14 and one z/OS LPAR, what component would contribute to higher availability?

A. Dual HMC setup

B. Three Phase Line cord

C. Parallel Sysplex

D. RAIM Memory technology

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www-01.ibm.com/common/ssi/cgi-bin/ssialias?subtype=caandinfotype=anandsupplier=897andletternum=ENUS219-058


Question 9:

Why are IBM Db2 z/OS customers uniquely positioned to take advantage of hybrid transactional and analytical processing (HTAP)?

A. They can leverage high-value, sensitive data in a security-rich environment with the IBM Db2 Analytics Accelerator.

B. They can use IBM Open Data Analytics for z/OS to securely combine data and insight from sources other than IBM Z.

C. They can easily scale with Db2 for z/OS Machine Learning.

D. They can use IBM Query Management Facility (QMF) to reliably optimize IBM Z data sources.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www-01.ibm.com/common/ssi/ShowDoc.wss?docURL=/common/ssi/rep_ca/8/897/ENUS219-248/index.htmlandrequest_locale=en (overview)


Question 10:

What can a general purpose CP on the LinuxONE Rockhopper II or Emperor II be used for?

A. IBM Db2 Analytics Accelerator (IDAA)

B. Geographically Dispersed Parallel Sysplex (GDPS)

C. Secure Service Container (SSC)

D. Dynamic Provision Manager (DPM)

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

A potential client has never had any exposure to IBM Z architecture. You were told that the client is working on a project to deploy a non-structured type database into x86 servers as part of a cloud offering. Which components of the database as a service solution should be presented to this future client?

A. LinuxONE, Linux, and MySQL DB

B. LinuxONE, Linux, and Db2 DB

C. LinuxONE, Linux, and Oracle DB

D. LinuxONE, Linux, and Mongo DB

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.ibm.com/downloads/cas/EWLX8LGJ


Question 12:

A client with a fully depreciated production zBC12 would like to upgrade to a z14 ZR1 of equal capacity. At the same time, they would complete a data center move to a location across the country requiring minimal downtime. Which of the following would typically be the most economical way to migrate them from the zBC12 to the z14 ZR1, accommodating the data center move while providing the least amount of downtime?

A. Purchase a net new z14 ZR1 for installation in the new data center.

B. MES the zBC12 to a z14 ZR1 located in the new data center.

C. MES zBC12 to z14 ZR1 in the current location; then move the z14 ZR1 to the new location.

D. Perform a Migration Offering from zBC12 to the z14 ZR1 in the new data center.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Prior to shipping a new IBM Z system or an upgrade, which is listed in the Designated Product List for a Pre-Sale and Pre-Install Expert Level TDA, what is necessary?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://archive.ibmsystemsmag.com/power/infrastructure/systemsmanagement/smooth-operator/


Question 14:

A customer purchased a new z14 3906-M02. They want the ability to add temporary CP capacity on short notice for a spike in production work. What authorization feature should be configured?

A. OOCoD

B. CPE

C. CBU

D. CDP

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

A customer purchased a z14 M02 (two drawer) 710 with 1TB of active memory and 2TB of pre-planned memory installed. They are planning for the release of a new product which will require, for several days, additional processor and memory capacity. They have a CIU (Customer Initiated Upgrade) contract already in place. Utilizing CIU and OOCoD (On Off Capacity On Demand), which of the following options will satisfy the customer\’s requirement?

A. Temporarily activate twice the amount of owned processor capacity that is present but not characterized in the two drawers, and purchase increments of the pre-planned memory up to the amount that is present in the two drawers.

B. Temporarily activate all of the additional processor capacity that is present but not characterized in the two drawers, and purchase increments of the pre-planned memory up to the amount that is present in the two drawers.

C. Temporarily activate all of the processor capacity that is present but not characterized in the two drawers, and temporarily add all the additional pre-panned memory increments up to the amount of that is present in the two drawers.

D. Temporarily activate twice the amount of owned processor capacity that is present but not characterized in the two drawers, and temporarily add up to twice the amount of the active memory using the pre-planned memory in the two drawers.

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist. Which of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report?

A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.

B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions

C. Status compared against the started exit criteria

D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be achieved

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing needs to be rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify THREE measures that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always applicable in other domains!

A. High level of documentation

B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions

C. Traceability to requirements

D. Non-functional testing

E. Master test planning

F. Test design techniques

G. Reviews

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 3:

Relying only on the information provided in the scenario, select the TWO items and/or features for which sufficient information is available to proceed with test design.

A. All supported credit cards

B. Language localization

C. Valid and invalid advances

D. Usability

E. Response time

Correct Answer: AC


Question 4:

Continuing with the Scenario described in the previous question, which of the following topics would you need to address in detail in the master test plan?

A. An approach to regression testing

B. A list of boundary values for “advance amount”

C. A description of dependencies between test cases

D. A logical collection of test cases

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which of the following is an example of testing as part of the requirements specification phase?

A. A requirements review meeting

B. A business analyst eliciting requirements

C. Performing acceptance tests against requirements

D. A test report showing requirements coverage

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Which of the following would you least expect to form part of the analysis of initial tool costs?

A. Integration with other tools

B. Learning time required to use the new tool

C. Tool portability

D. Evaluation of suitable tools

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any life cycle model?

A. Analysis and design of tests begins as soon as development is completed.

B. Some, but not all, development activities have corresponding test activities.

C. Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.

D. All document reviews involve the development team.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Part of the testing strategy indicates that you are going to be using systematic test design techniques. Your manager has asked that you present the main advantages of using these techniques at the next board meeting.

Identify THREE main benefits of using systematic test design techniques within this company.

A. Easier to quickly adapt testing to changing requirements compared to experienced- based testing

B. Targets certain types of faults

C. Will guide experienced testers to find defects

D. Provides a way to differentiate depth of testing based on product risks by using different techniques

E. More enhanced documentation and therefore higher repeatability and reproducibility

F. Will make non-systematic testing redundant

G. Will reduce the need for early reviews

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 9:

Based on the information given in the scenario, identify how the team could be improved most effectively?

A. By providing training in the payroll domain

B. By providing a workshop on test design techniques

C. By providing specific training on the systems being tested

D. By providing training on reviewing requirements

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which of the following is a valid drawback of independent testing?

A. Developer and independent testing will overlap and waste resources.

B. Developers loose the sense of responsibility and independent testers may become a bottleneck.

C. Independent testers need extra education and always cost more.

D. Independent testers will become a bottleneck and introduce problems in incident management.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which aspect in the test estimate is the main risk in this project?

A. Quality of the specification

B. Availability of end-users

C. The costs of hardware and tools

D. Unknown input quality due to third party development

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

In general, why is it NOT a good idea to estimate the testing effort based only on a percentage of development effort? Identify THREE valid reasons.

A. The quality of the development estimate may be poor.

B. In general bottom-up estimation is always better than top-down estimation.

C. The percentage based technique only applies to the V life cycle model.

D. Using the same percentage every time does not address the level of risk of the application to be tested.

E. The maturity of the organization, e.g. the quality of the test basis, quality of development testing, configuration management, availability of test tools, also influence the effort needed for testing.

F. It builds on large set of historical data

G. The result is almost always a too low estimate for the required test effort

Correct Answer: ADE


Question 13:

Identify THREE items that would be part of the work-breakdown structure showing the key testing activities for the acceptance test project.

A. Test planning, test case preparation and test execution for each of the four iterations

B. Work should be explicitly allocated to test completion, test management, installation and to training on using the system

C. Activities to deploy the system in the user environment

D. Regression testing in the second, third and fourth iterations

E. Development activities for unit and integration testing

F. Reviews on requirements documentation

G. Defining test environment requirements for system testing

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 14:

The test improvement project will take place in an organization developing a safety- critical avionics application.

Which one of the following standards do you believe would be most appropriate to take into account for compliance during your assignment?

A. ISO 9126

B. IEEE 829

C. BS 7925/2

D. DO-178B

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

As part of the test strategy, entry and exit criteria will be defined for each test level.

Which is NOT a valid reason for using entry and exit criteria?

A. The expectation is that development testing is not adequate.

B. Exit criteria are used to decide on when to stop testing.

C. Entry and exit criteria are a principal way for getting adequate resources.

D. Using entry and exit criteria will prevent software that is not or poorly tested from going to the next test level.

Correct Answer: C