[Latest Version] Free RC0-501 PDF Download with 100% Pass Guarantee

[Latest Version] Free RC0-501 PDF Download with 100% Pass Guarantee

Attention please! Here is the shortcut to pass your Latest RC0-501 pdf dumps exam! Get yourself well prepared for the CompTIA Security Jun 27,2022 Latest RC0-501 free download CompTIA Security Recertification Exam exam is really a hard job. But don’t worry! We We, provides the most update RC0-501 new questions. With We latest RC0-501 dumps, you’ll pass the CompTIA Security Latest RC0-501 study guide CompTIA Security Recertification Exam exam in an easy way

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest RC0-501 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the RC0-501 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our RC0-501 dumps.Although questions are from RC0-501 free dumps, the validity and accuracy of the RC0-501 dumps are absolutely guaranteed.

Question 1:

A new intern in the purchasing department requires read access to shared documents. Permissions are normally controlled through a group called “Purchasing”, however, the purchasing group permissions allow write access. Which of the following would be the BEST course of action?

A. Modify all the shared files with read only permissions for the intern.

B. Create a new group that has only read permissions for the files.

C. Remove all permissions for the shared files.

D. Add the intern to the “Purchasing” group.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

A business has recently deployed laptops to all sales employees. The laptops will be used primarily from home offices and while traveling, and a high amount of wireless mobile use is expected. To protect the laptops while connected to untrusted wireless networks, which of the following would be the BEST method for reducing the risk of having the laptops compromised?

A. MAC filtering

B. Virtualization

C. OS hardening

D. Application white-listing

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Which of the fallowing security controls does an iris scanner provide?

A. Logical

B. Administrative

C. Corrective

D. Physical

E. Detective

F. Deterrent

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

During a data breach cleanup, it is discovered that not all of the sites involved have the necessary data wiping tools. The necessary tools are quickly distributed to the required technicians, but when should this problem BEST be revisited?

A. Reporting

B. Preparation

C. Mitigation

D. Lessons Learned

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Joe, a technician, is working remotely with his company provided laptop at the coffee shop near his home. Joe is concerned that another patron of the coffee shop may be trying to access his laptop. Which of the following is an appropriate control to use to prevent the other patron from accessing Joe\’s laptop directly?

A. full-disk encryption

B. Host-based firewall

C. Current antivirus definitions

D. Latest OS updates

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

An attacker uses a network sniffer to capture the packets of a transaction that adds $20 to a gift card. The attacker then user a function of the sniffer to push those packets back onto the network again, adding another $20 to the gift card. This can be done many times. Which of the following describes this type of attack?

A. Integer overflow attack

B. Smurf attack

C. Replay attack

D. Buffer overflow attack

E. Cross-site scripting attack

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

The data backup window has expanded into the morning hours and has begun to affect production users. The main bottleneck in the process is the time it takes to replicate the backups to separate severs at the offsite data center. Which of the following uses of deduplication could be implemented to reduce the backup window?

A. Implement deduplication at the network level between the two locations

B. Implement deduplication on the storage array to reduce the amount of drive space needed

C. Implement deduplication on the server storage to reduce the data backed up

D. Implement deduplication on both the local and remote servers

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

A penetration testing is preparing for a client engagement in which the tester must provide data that proves and validates the scanning tools\’ results. Which of the following is the best method for collecting this information?

A. Set up the scanning system\’s firewall to permit and log all outbound connections

B. Use a protocol analyzer to log all pertinent network traffic

C. Configure network flow data logging on all scanning system

D. Enable debug level logging on the scanning system and all scanning tools used.

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

The SSID broadcast for a wireless router has been disabled but a network administrator notices that unauthorized users are accessing the wireless network. The administer has determined that attackers are still able to detect the presence of

the wireless network despite the fact the SSID has been disabled.

Which of the following would further obscure the presence of the wireless network?

A. Upgrade the encryption to WPA or WPA2

B. Create a non-zero length SSID for the wireless router

C. Reroute wireless users to a honeypot

D. Disable responses to a broadcast probe request

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

After a merger, it was determined that several individuals could perform the tasks of a network administrator in the merged organization. Which of the following should have been performed to ensure that employees have proper access?

A. Time-of-day restrictions

B. Change management

C. Periodic auditing of user credentials

D. User rights and permission review

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

A company exchanges information with a business partner. An annual audit of the business partner is conducted against the SLA in order to verify:

A. Performance and service delivery metrics

B. Backups are being performed and tested

C. Data ownership is being maintained and audited

D. Risk awareness is being adhered to and enforced

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

A security administrator needs to implement a system that detects possible intrusions based upon a vendor provided list. Which of the following BEST describes this type of IDS?

A. Signature based

B. Heuristic

C. Anomaly-based

D. Behavior-based

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Having adequate lighting on the outside of a building is an example of which of the following security controls?

A. Deterrent

B. Compensating

C. Detective

D. Preventative

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

During a recent audit, it was discovered that several user accounts belonging to former employees were still active and had valid VPN permissions. Which of the following would help reduce the amount of risk the organization incurs in this situation in the future?

A. Time-of-day restrictions

B. User access reviews

C. Group-based privileges

D. Change management policies

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

A security administrator wants to implement a company-wide policy to empower data owners to manage and enforce access control rules on various resources. Which of the following should be implemented?

A. Mandatory access control

B. Discretionary access control

C. Role based access control

D. Rule-based access control

Correct Answer: B


Free Providing 1Z0-963 VCE Exam Study Guides With New Update Exam Questions

Free Providing 1Z0-963 VCE Exam Study Guides With New Update Exam Questions

How to pass Jun 26,2022 Latest 1Z0-963 free download exam easily with less time? We provides the most valid 1Z0-963 dumps to boost your success rate in Oracle Cloud Latest 1Z0-963 vce dumps Oracle Procurement Cloud 2017 Implementation Essentials exam. If you are one of the successful candidates with We 1Z0-963 new questions, do not hesitate to share your reviews on our Oracle Cloud materials.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 1Z0-963 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the 1Z0-963 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 1Z0-963 dumps.Free sample questions of 1Z0-963 free dumps are provided here. All the following questions are from the latest real 1Z0-963 dumps.

Question 1:

You are implementing Cloud Procurement contracts and during user acceptance testing, the user would like to create clauses in the Cloud applications similar to what were available in their legacy Contract application.

Identify two ways to create clauses as per their requirement.

A. Manage Contract Standard Clauses from Functional Setup Manager.

B. Create Clauses from the Contractsworkarea page.

C. Manage Contract Standard Clauses, Templates, and Profiles from Functional Setup Manager.

D. Import Clauses from the Contracts workarea page.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 2:

Your client\’s business requires that only requester A is provided access to the punchout catalog and not requester B.

Identify the configuration to achieve this.

A. Set the punchout catalog security in the punchout catalog definition page to “Secured by worker” with the value “Requester A” and no setup for requester B.

B. Set the punchout catalog-associated content zone security to “Secured by worker” with the value “Requester A” and no setup for requester B.

C. Assign the “advance procurement requester” role to requester A and the “procurement requester” role to requester B.

D. Assign the “punchout catalog request” role to procurement requester A and “procurement requester” role to requester B.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Identify two control options that are enabled when a buyer selects the `Group requisition lines\’ field while creating a Blanket Purchase Agreement.

A. Group requisitions

B. Apply price updates to existing orders

C. Use need-by date

D. Automatically submit for approval

E. Use ship-to organization and location

Correct Answer: CE


Question 4:

Which three business users can submit a new supplier request?

A. Category Manager

B. Supplier Administrator

C. Catalog Administrator

D. Warehouse Manager

E. Self-Service Procurement user

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 5:

During the implementation, your customer wants to understand the key features of the two- stage Request For Quotation (RFQ) available in Oracle Sourcing Cloud.

Identify three features of the two-stage RFQ.

A. Technical and Commercial Evaluation

B. Open Auctions

C. Two stage Evaluation

D. Response Visibility Blind

E. Response Visibility Open

F. Response Visibility is always Sealed

Correct Answer: ACF


Question 6:

Your customer is implementing Cloud Procurement across two countries: A and B. They need intercompany transactions to be carried out between these two entities.

Identify the setup to fulfill this requirement.

A. intercompany transaction between business units of countries A and B

B. Supply Chain financial Orchestration agreement between legal entities of countries A and B

C. Supply Chain financial Orchestration agreement between business units of countries A and B

D. intercompany transaction between legal entities of countries A and B

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

A buyer is creating a purchase requisition using `Catalog Superstore\’, and intends to compare items before adding them to the shopping list. Identify the maximum number of items that are allowed by the application for side-by-side item comparison.

A. 8

B. 6

C. 4

D. 5

E. 7

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

During an Oracle Procurement Cloud implementation, you have been asked to provide View access to all purchasing document to all buyers in Procurement Business Unit A. What will you do to configure this change?

A. Update each buyer\’s access using “ManagerProcurement Agent” for procurement Business Unit A.

B. Modify “Configure Procurement Business Function” for procurement Business Unit A and provide access to all buyers.

C. Define all buyers as employees in procurement Business Unit A.

D. Configure a newdocument style and assign it to each buyer in “Manage Procurement Agent”.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Identify three application standard lookups that are available in the Setup and Maintenance task list `Define Supplier Configuration\’.

A. Manage Freight Terms Lookup

B. Manage FOB Lookup

C. Tax Organization Type Lookup

D. Manage Requirement Section Lookup

E. Minority Group Lookup

F. Business Classification Lookup

Correct Answer: CEF


Question 10:

During Oracle Procurement Cloud implementation, one of the requirements of the customer is to capture the revision history of Purchase Orders when `notes to receiver\’ is entered or updated as part of a Change Order. Identify the setup that needs to be performed in order to capture change history when a user updates `notes to receiver\’ as part of the Change Order.

A. Update the attribute `notes to receiver\’ in the Change Order template for the Purchase Order.

B. Update the attribute `notes to receiver\’ in `Configure Requisitioning Business Function\’ for the requisitioning Business Unit.

C. Update the attribute `notes to receiver\’ in`Common Payables and Procurement Options\’ for the procurement Business Unit.

D. Update the attribute `notes to receiver\’ in supplier site assignment for the supplier site.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 11:

Your customer requires that a consignment order should automatically get created whenever a self-service requester creates a purchase requisition. Identify the setup required to fulfill this requirement.

A. Select the “Source from consignment” check box and set “Urgent” to “Yes” during requisition creation through self-service.

B. Enable all the requisition line items to be sourced from the consignment source.

C. Create a consignment agreement with touchless buying options enabled in the Controls tab to automatically generate orders.

D. Assign all the requisition line to the consignment buyer.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

During a Procurement Contract implementation, a customer would like to set up approvals for procurement contract documents. The customer has four departments and any contract needs to be approved by all the four department users. Identify the configuration to fulfill this requirement.

A. Set up one approval group and include the four department users with voting regime as consensus.

B. Set up one approval group and include the four department users with voting regime as first responder wins.

C. Set up employee supervisor hierarchy for all four department users and add them to an approval group.

D. Set up user group for the four departments and set up individual rules for the four department users.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

During the User acceptance testing of your Cloud Procurement implementation, a user has created a purchase order and is trying to submit the purchase order for approval. On clicking Submit, the user gets a “Funds check failed” error.

Identify the cause of this error.

A. Funds are insufficient and budget type is “Absolute”.

B. Funds are insufficient and budget type is “Track”.

C. Funds are insufficient and budget type is “Advisory”.

D. Funds are available butthe approver is not set up as “Budget Manager” for the selected budget for the business unit.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Your customer is a global company and has multiple legal entities across countries:

Vision China (Legal Entity 1) has a China Distribution Business Unit (BU).

Vision US (Legal Entity 2) has a US Distribution BU.

They have the following requirements:

1.

To make purchases from or sell to the other legal entities using intercompany transaction

2.

To automatically determine the sold-to legal entity on a Purchase Order (PO) by using Supply Chain Financial Orchestration (SFO)

Identify three application setups in Oracle Procurement Cloud to fulfill these requirements.

A. Set up the default procurement business unit for Default Legal Entity in Manage Purchasing Profile Options.

B. Set up the “Multiple Legal Entities on Order” value to “Allow” on the Configure Requisitioning Business Process page.

C. Set up the Default Legal Entity on the Configure Requisitioning Business Process page.

D. Define a primary route on financial orchestration flow to enforce the sold-to-legal entity on a PO.

E. Create Profit Center BU to Party Relationships.

Correct Answer: ADE


Question 15:

During an implementation where Procurement Contract and Supplier Portal are being implemented, the Procurement Contract user (buyer) has created deliverables on a supplier, which also has an identified Supplier Portal user. The supplier has requested the buyer to email details of the deliverable.

Advise the buyer on how he or she can communicate the deliverable details to the supplier through the application.

A. The supplier canview the deliverable from the Supplier Portal by clicking the Manage Deliverables link.

B. The supplier can view the deliverable from the Supplier Portal under the Deliverables tab.

C. The supplier can view the deliverable by opening the contract in the Contracts tab in the Supplier Portal.

D. The supplier can view the deliverable by navigating to the Agreements tab from the Supplier Portal.

Correct Answer: B


[Newest Version] Free 2V0-72.22 PDF and Exam Questions Download 100% Pass Exam

[Newest Version] Free 2V0-72.22 PDF and Exam Questions Download 100% Pass Exam

Tens of thousands of competitors, pages of hard questions and unsatisfied exam preparation situations… Do not worried about all those annoying things! We, help you with your VCP-AM Develop 2022 Jun 21,2022 Newest 2V0-72.22 exam questions Professional Develop VMware Spring exam. We will assist you clear the Newest 2V0-72.22 exam questions exam with VCP-AM Develop 2022 latest 2V0-72.22 dumps. We 2V0-72.22 practice tests are the most comprehensive ones.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 2V0-72.22 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the 2V0-72.22 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 2V0-72.22 dumps.2V0-72.22 free dumps are questions from the latest full 2V0-72.22 dumps. Check 2V0-72.22 free questions to get a better understanding of 2V0-72.22 exams.

Question 1:

If a class is annotated with @Component, what should be done to have Spring automatically detect the annotated class and load it as a bean? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Ensure a valid bean name in the @Component annotation is specified.

B. Ensure a valid @ComponentScan annotation in the Java configuration is specified.

C. Ensure a valid @Scope for the class is specified.

D. Ensure a valid @Bean for the class is specified.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.baeldung.com/spring-component-annotation


Question 2:

Which two options will inject the value of the daily.limit system property? (Choose two.)

A. @Value(“#{daily.limit}”)

B. @Value(“$(systemProperties.daily.limit)”)

C. @Value(“$(daily.limit)”)

D. @Value(“#{systemProperties[`daily.limit\’]}”)

E. @Value(“#{systemProperties.daily.limit}”)

Correct Answer: BD


Question 3:

Which two options are REST principles? (Choose two.)

A. RESTful applications use a stateless architecture.

B. RESTful application use HTTP headers and status codes as a contract with the clients.

C. RESTful applications cannot use caching.

D. RESTful application servers keep track of the client state.

E. RESTful applications favor tight coupling between the clients and the servers.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 4:

Which option is true about use of mocks in a Spring Boot web slice test? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Mocking a Spring Bean requires annotating it with @MockBean annotation.

B. If a Spring Bean already exists in the web slice test spring context, it cannot be mocked.

C. Mocks cannot be used in a Spring Boot web slice test.

D. Mocking a Spring Bean requires annotating it with @Mock annotation.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://tanzu.vmware.com/developer/guides/spring-boot-testing/


Question 5:

Which two statements are true regarding Spring Security? (Choose two.)

A. Access control can be configured at the method level.

B. A special Java Authentication and Authorization Service (JAAS) policy file needs to be configured.

C. Authentication data can be accessed using a variety of different mechanisms, including databases and LDAP.

D. In the authorization configuration, the usage of permitAll () allows bypassing Spring security completely.

E. It provides a strict implementation of the Java EE Security specification.

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.baeldung.com/security-none-filters-none-access-permitAll


Question 6:

Which two statements are true regarding a Spring Boot-based Spring MVC application? (Choose two.)

A. The default embedded servlet container can be replaced with Undertow.

B. Jetty is the default servlet container.

C. Spring Boot starts up an embedded servlet container by default.

D. The default port of the embedded servlet container is 8088.

E. Spring MVC starts up an in-memory database by default.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://www.javatpoint.com/spring-vs-spring-boot-vs-spring-mvc


Question 7:

Which two statements are true regarding Spring and Spring Boot Testing? (Choose two.)

A. EasyMock is supported out of the box.

B. @SpringBootTest or @SpringJUnitConfig can be used for creating an ApplicationContext.

C. Mockito spy is not supported in Spring Boot testing by default.

D. The spring-test dependency provides annotations such as @Mock and @MockBean.

E. Integration and slice testing are both supported.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docs.spring.io/spring-boot/docs/2.1.5.RELEASE/reference/html/boot-featurestesting.html


Question 8:

Which two statements are true concerning constructor injection? (Choose two.)

A. If there is only one constructor the @Autowired annotation is not required.

B. Constructor injection only allows one value to be injected.

C. Constructor injection is preferred over field injection to support unit testing.

D. Construction injection can be used with multiple constructors without @Autowired annotation.

E. Field injection is preferred over constructor injection from a unit testing standpoint.

Correct Answer: CE


Question 9:

Given an ApplicationContext containing three bean definitions of type Foo with bean ids foo1, foo2, and foo3, which three @Autowired scenarios are valid and will allow the ApplicationContext to initialize successfully? (Choose three.)

A. @Autowired public void setFoo (Foo foo) {…}

B. @Autowired @Qualifier (“foo3”) Foo foo;

C. @Autowired public void setFoo (@Qualifier (“foo1”) Foo foo) {…}

D. @Autowired private Foo foo;

E. @Autowired private Foo foo2;

F. @Autowired public void setFoo(Foo foo2) {…}

Correct Answer: ADF


Question 10:

Which dependency enables an automatic restart of the application as code is changed during development of a Spring boot configuration on a web application? (Choose the best answer.)

A. spring-boot-devtools

B. spring-boot-initializr

C. spring-boot-starter-devtools

D. spring-boot-restart

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.spring.io/spring-boot/docs/current/reference/html/using.html


Question 11:

Spring puts each bean instance in a scope. What is the default scope? (Choose the best answer.)

A. prototype

B. singleton

C. request

D. session

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://stackoverflow.com/questions/17599216/spring-bean-scopes


Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which option is a valid way to retrieve the account id? (Choose the best answer.)

A. Add @PathVariable(“id”) String accountId argument to the update() handler method.

B. Add @PathVariable long accountId argument to the update() handler method.

C. Add @RequestParam long accountId argument to the update() handler method.

D. Add @RequestParam(“id”) String accountId argument to the update() handler method.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.spring.io/spring-framework/docs/4.3.12.RELEASE/spring-framework-reference/ htmlsingle/


Question 13:

Which strategy is correct for configuring Spring Security to intercept particular URLs? (Choose the best answer.)

A. The URLs can be specified via configuration (using authorizeRequests () and request matchers), with the most specific rule first and the least specific last.

B. Spring Security can obtain URLs from Spring MVC controllers, the Spring Security configuration just needs a reference to the controller to be protected.

C. The URLs are specified in a special properties file, used by Spring Security.

D. The URLs can be specified via configuration (using authorizeRequests () and request matchers), with the least specific rule first and the most specific last.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.baeldung.com/security-none-filters-none-access-permitAll


Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

The above code shows a conditional @Bean method for the creation of a JdbcTemplate bean.

Which two statements correctly describe the code behavior? (Choose two.)

A. @ConditionalOnBean(name= “dataSource”) should be replaced with @ConditionalOnBean (DataSource.class) for greater flexibility.

B. @ConditionalOnBean(name= “dataSource”) should be replaced with @ConditionalOnMissingBean (DataSource.class) for greater flexibility.

C. The @Bean annotation should be removed.

D. A JdbcTemplate bean will be created when the DataSource class is in the classpath but there is no DataSource bean.

E. A JdbcTemplate bean will be created when a bean named dataSource has already been created.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 15:

What is a Spring Boot starter dependency? (Choose the best answer.)

A. A setting for specifying which code you want Spring Boot to generate for you.

B. A specific POM which you must build to control Spring Boot\’s opinionated runtime.

C. A pre-existing model project you can download and use as the basis of your project.

D. An easy way to include multiple, coordinated dependencies related to a specific technology, like web or JDBC.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://developer.ibm.com/tutorials/j-spring-boot-basics-perry/


Pass Guarantee c7010-013 Exam By Taking New c7010-013 VCE And PDF Braindumps

Pass Guarantee c7010-013 Exam By Taking New c7010-013 VCE And PDF Braindumps

Attention please! Here is the shortcut to pass your Jun 20,2022 Latest c7010-013 pdf dumps exam! Get yourself well prepared for the IBM Certified Associate Business Process Analyst Newest c7010-013 practice IBM Cúram V6.0.5, Business Analysis and Design exam is really a hard job. But don’t worry! We We, provides the most update c7010-013 pdf. With We latest c7010-013 braindumps, you’ll pass the IBM Certified Associate Business Process Analyst Latest c7010-013 vce IBM Cúram V6.0.5, Business Analysis and Design exam in an easy way

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest c7010-013 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the c7010-013 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our c7010-013 dumps.If you need to check sample questions of the c7010-013 free dumps, go through the Q and As from c7010-013 dumps below.

Question 1:

Which component of the user interface appears on the screen when an action, such as New, Edit, or Delete, is initiated?

A. Pod

B. Action menu

C. Home page

D. Modal dialog

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Which three of the following are components of an application tab in the IBM Cúram user interface?

A. Application sections

B. Modal dialog

C. Navigation bar

D. Page group navigation bar

E. Shortcuts panel

F. Context panel

Correct Answer: CDF


Question 3:

Which three of the following are components of the IBM Cúram Social Program Management Platform?

A. Administration Suite

B. Evidence Management

C. Cúram Child Welfare

D. Cúram Appeals

E. Cúram Universal Access

F. Participant Management

Correct Answer: AB


Question 4:

Which three of the following are components of the IBM Cúram Social Program Management Platform?

A. Cúram Social Enterprise Collaboration

B. Cúram Universal Access

C. Cúram Outcome Management

D. Cúram Provider Management

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which two of the following statements about the IBM Cúram Express Rules (CER) Editor are true?

A. Users of the CER Editor must have a basic knowledge of XML

B. To access the CER Editor, the user logs in to Cúram as a caseworker

C. The CER Editor uses various palettes to enable the user to create rules

D. The CER Editor is a separately licensed Cúram Solution

E. The CER Editor is designed for both business and technical users

Correct Answer: CE


Question 6:

Which three of the following are types of IBM Cúram Express Rules (CER)?

A. Workflow

B. Task

C. Validation

D. Financial

E. Advisor

F. Determination

Correct Answer: CDF


Question 7:

Which three of the following are terms dealing with IBM Cúram Express Rules (CER)?

A. Rule attribute

B. Rule session

C. Rule object

D. Rule repeat

E. Rule flow

F. Rule list group

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 8:

Which three of the following actions are available to system administrators when they are working with a single workflow process instance?

A. Reserve

B. Abort

C. Resume

D. Clone

E. Suspend

F. Defer

Correct Answer: BCE


Question 9:

Which of the following performs runtime execution of a workflow process?

A. Workflow Data Objects

B. Workflow Engine

C. User Inbox

D. Process Definition Tool

E. Workflow Administration

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which three of the following items are workflow activity types?

A. Automatic

B. Route

C. Event

D. Loop

E. Transition

F. Notification

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 11:

Which three of the following statements about locations are true?

A. Locations represent the work places of the users

B. Each location must have a unique address

C. Locations are organized within a hierarchy

D. Locations are elements within the organization structure

E. Each location can have its own holiday schedule

F. Each location has its own lead position

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 12:

Which template type should the caseworker use?

A. Microsoft Word

B. PDF

C. XSL

D. OpenOffice

E. Attachment

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Which three of the following statements about rate tables are true?

A. They have effective dates

B. They store values for drop-down lists

C. They store application properties

D. They can be cloned

E. They cannot be used by rule sets

F. They store values that can vary over time

Correct Answer: ADF


Question 14:

Which three of the following elements of a user\’s profile can be used to prevent them from successfully logging into IBM Cúram?

A. Account expiration date

B. Location

C. Number of log-ins per hour

D. Organization unit

E. Days of the week

F. Time of day

Correct Answer: BEF


Question 15:

Which four of the following are valid settings for an organization\’s location data security?

A. Variable

B. Delegated

C. Restricted View

D. Read Only

E. On

F. Suspended

G. Off

Correct Answer: CDEG


Most Up to Date Version of 117-201 Exam Dumps for Free

Most Up to Date Version of 117-201 Exam Dumps for Free

Attention please! Here is the shortcut to pass your Hotest 117-201 pdf exam! Get yourself well prepared for the Recent Updates Jun 19,2022 Latest 117-201 pdf Linux Advanced Administration exam is really a hard job. But don’t worry! We We, provides the most update 117-201 actual tests. With We latest 117-201 exam questions, you’ll pass the Recent Updates Newest 117-201 study guide Linux Advanced Administration exam in an easy way

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 117-201 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the 117-201 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 117-201 dumps.Do you what to see some samples before 117-201 exam? Check the following 117-201 free dumps or download 117-201 dumps here.

Question 1:

What is the usable disk space of a RAID 5 array of five l8GB drives with one drive dedicated as a spare?

A. 18GB

B. 36GB

C. 54GB

D. 72GB

E. 90GB

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

On a system with separate partitions for /, /usr, /var, /tmp, which filesystem[s] can safely be mounted read only?

A. /var, /usr

B. /var

C. /usr, /, /tmp

D. /usr

E. /tmp

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

A Linux machine freezes during boot. To boot directly to a shell prompt so that editing of files and manual starting of services is possible which command line must be passed to the kernel for the boot process?

A. init=/bin/bash

B. 1

C. runlevel=1

D. sh E. /bin/sh

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

A network client has an ethernet interface configured with an IP address in the subnet 192.168.0.0/24. This subnet has a router, with the IP address 192.168.0.l, that connects this subnet to the Internet. What needs to be done on the client to enable it to use the router as its default gateway?

A. Run route add default gw 192.168.0.1 ethl.

B. Run route add gw 192.168.0.1 ethl.

C. Run ifconfig eth0 defaultroute 192.168.0.1.

D. Add “defaultroute 192.168.0.l” to /etc/resolv.conf.

E. Run route add defaultgw=192.168.0.1 if=eth0.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which of these tools can provide the most information about DNS queries?

A. dig

B. nslookup

C. host

D. named-checkconf

E. named-checkzone

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

What needs to be done to enable 32 bit I/O transfer mode for (E)IDE disks, on a system running a 2.4 series Linux kernel?

A. The Linux kernel must be recompiled.

B. The sysctl utility must be used.

C. The hdparm utility must be used.

D. This feature isn\’t supported in 2.4 series kernels.

E. This feature is enabled by default in 2.4 series kernels

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

If the command arp -f is run, which file will be read by default?

A. /etc/hosts

B. /etc/ethers

C. /etc/arp.conf

D. /etc/networks

E. /var/cache/arp

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

A DNS server has the IP address 192.168.0.1. Which TWO of the following need to be done on a client machine to use thisDNSserver?

A. Add nameserver 192.168.0.1 to /etc/resolv.conf

B. Run route add nameserver 192.168.0.1

C. Run ifconfig eth0 nameserver 192.168.0.1

D. Ensure that the dns service is listed in the hosts entry in the /etc/nsswitch.conf file

E. Run bind add nameserver 192.168.0.1

Correct Answer: AD


Question 9:

Which of these commands allows you to use shared libraries that are in /usr/local/lib?

A. export LD_PRELOAD=/usr/local/lib

B. exportLD_LIBRARY_PATH=/usr/local/lib

C. ldconfig /usr/local/lib

D. ldd /usr/local/lib

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

After unpacking the source code for a Linux kernel, what is the first make command that should be run which will delete any current configuration and all generated files? This command will ensure that no inappropriate files were left in the kernel archive by the maintainer.

A. make depend

B. make distclean

C. make config

D. make clean

E. makemrproper

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

What tool can you use to print shared library dependencies?

A. ldconfig

B. ldd

C. libdep

D. libpath

E. ldev

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

After unpacking source code, what file is used by configure to create a final Makefile?

A. configure.in

B. configure.ac

C. Makefile.in

D. Makefile.tmpl

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

What is the term for unmounting a filesystem, which cleans up all references to the filesystem, as soon as it is not in use any longer?

A. soft

B. strong

C. forced

D. lazy

E. delayed

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Which system files are updated as devices are mounted and unmount to provide information on the mounted devices and the options used? (Please specify TWO answers)

A. /proc/dtab

B. /etc/mtab

C. /etc/fstab

D. /proc/mounts

E. /proc/devices

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which of the following commands should be used in a bash script that needs a variable containing the IP address of the eth0 interface? The output for the command ifconfig eth0 is shown below: eth0 Link encap:Ethernet HWaddr 00:0C:29:CB:FA:30 inetaddr:192.168.246.llBcast:192.168.246.255Mask:255.255.255.0UPBROADCAST UNNING MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:l RX packets:4721 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:3216 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:1000 RX bytes:445184 (434.7 Kb) TX bytes:512968 (500.9 Kb) Interrupt:l85 Base address:0x1080

A. IP=LANG= ifconfig eth0 I awk \'{ print $2 }\’ I cut -f2

B. IP=LANG= ifconfig eth0 I grep inet I cut -d: -f2 I awk { print $l }

C. IP=LANG= ifconfig eth0 I awk \'{ print $3 }\’

D. IP=$(LANG= ifconfig eth0 I grep inet I awk \'{ print $2 }\’ I cut -d: -f2)

E. IP=$(LANG= ifconfig eth0 I grep inet I cut -d: -f2)

Correct Answer: D


Pass Guarantee H19-301 Exam By Taking New H19-301 VCE And PDF Braindumps

Pass Guarantee H19-301 Exam By Taking New H19-301 VCE And PDF Braindumps

How to pass Jun 16,2022 Hotest H19-301 pdf dumps exam easily with less time? We provides the most valid H19-301 pdf to boost your success rate in HCS-Pre-Sales-IP Network(Datacom) Hotest H19-301 study guide Huawei Certified Pre-sales Specialist – IP Network(Datacom) exam. If you are one of the successful candidates with We H19-301 actual tests, do not hesitate to share your reviews on our HCS-Pre-Sales-IP Network(Datacom) materials.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest H19-301 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the H19-301 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our H19-301 dumps.H19-301 free dumps are questions from the latest full H19-301 dumps. Check H19-301 free questions to get a better understanding of H19-301 exams.

Question 1:

The benefit of CSS iStack/SVF is () (Multiple Choice)

A. simplified management

B. loop free L2 network

C. no STP depolyment

D. 100% link usage

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 2:

Which are value-add services that NE router could support? (Multiple Choice)

A. BOD

B. IP hard pipe

C. DAA

D. ISSU

Correct Answer: AC


Question 3:

The protection rating of Huawei\’s outdoor APs is ()?

A. IP41

B. IP55

C. IP66

D. IP67

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

S12700 uses industry-leading left-to-rear ventilation channel design.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

which frequency bands are used by 802.11 standard?

A. 400MHz and 800MHz

B. 800MHz and 1800MHz

C. 2.4GHz and 5GHz

D. 5GHz and 8GHz

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

What measures are taken to allow Huawei outdoor APs to withstand harsh environments? (Multiple Choice)

A. Supports a built-in 6 kV surge protector for antenna and feeder

B. Working temperature range is -40℃ to 60℃

C. Working humidity is 0% to 100% (non-condensing)

D. Comply with IP67 for waterproofing

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 7:

IP FPM is abbreviation for IP Flow Performance Measurement.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

What is the maximum switching capacity of S6720?

A. 480Gbps

B. 640Gbps

C. 960Gbps

D. 1.44Tbps

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Which switch supports downlink optical ports?

A. S2700-26TP-PWR-EI

B. S3700-52P-EI

C. S3700-52P-EI-24S

D. S3700-28TP-SI

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Which type subcard does the CE8860 support? (Multiple Choice)

A. 10GE

B. 25GE

C. 40GE

D. 100GE

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 11:

FCoE achieves converged SAN network, which type of TOR can not support FCoE?

A. CE7850

B. CE6850

C. CE6810

D. CE5800

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Which OandM are AR G3 support? (Multiple Choice)

A. Batch Deployment Using USB Flash Drive

B. SNMP management

C. web GUI

D. CLJ(Command Line Inteface)

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 13:

NE40E-X3 has a independent fabric board.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

HUAWEI CE datacenter Switch implement full orthogonal hardware architecture to improve the device capacity.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

CE6860 has 25GE downlink and 100GE uplink.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Free Download the Most Update HPE6-A73 Brain Dumps

Free Download the Most Update HPE6-A73 Brain Dumps

We ensures to provide the most update {keywords} with the most accurate answers. We Aruba Certified Switching Professional (ACSP) V1 HPE6-A73 exam questions are the most complete and authoritative HPE6-A73 vce with which one can pass the Aruba Certified Switching Professional (ACSP) V1 Hotest HPE6-A73 free download exam in an easy way. Preparing for Aruba Certified Switching Professional (ACSP) V1 Jun 15,2022 Newest HPE6-A73 free download Aruba Certified Switching Professional exam is really a tough task to accomplish. But We will simplified the process.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest HPE6-A73 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the HPE6-A73 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our HPE6-A73 dumps.If you need to check sample questions of the HPE6-A73 free dumps, go through the Q and As from HPE6-A73 dumps below.

Question 1:

Which statement is correct regarding ACLs and TCAM usage?

A. Applying an ACL to a group of ports consumes the same resources as specific ACE entries

B. Using object groups consumes the same resources as specific ACE entries

C. Compression is automatically enabled for ASIC TCAMs on AOS-CX switches

D. Applying an ACL to a group of VLANs consumes the same resources as specific ACE entries

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

What is correct regarding rate limiting and egress queue shaping on AOS-CX switches?

A. Only a traffic rate and burst size can be defined for a queue

B. Limits can be defined only for broadcast and multicast traffic

C. Rate limiting and egress queue shaping can be used to restrict inbound traffic

D. Rate limiting and egress queue shaping can be applied globally

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

A network administrator needs to replace an antiquated access layer solution with a modular solution involving AOS-CX switches. The administrator wants to leverage virtual switching technologies. The solution needs to support high- availability with dual-control planes.

Which solution should the administrator implement?

A. AOS-CX 8325

B. AOS-CX 6300

C. AOS-CX 6400

D. AOS-CX 8400

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

A network engineer is having a problem adding a custom-written script to an AOS-CX switch\’s NAE GUI. The script was written in Python and was successfully added on other AOS-CX switches. The engineer examines the following items from the CLI of the switch: What should the engineer perform to fix this issue?

A. Install the script\’s signature before installing the new script

B. Ensure the engineer\’s desktop and the AOS-CX switch are synchronized to the same NTP server

C. Enable trust settings for the AOS-CX switch\’s SSL certificate

D. Remove a script that is no longer used before installing the new script

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Which option correctly defines how to identify a VLAN as a voice VLAN on an AOS-CX switch?

A. Switch(config)# port-access lldp-group Switch(config-lldp-group)# vlan

B. Switch(config)# port-access role Switch(config-pa-role)# vlan access

C. Switch(config)# vlan Switch(config-vlan-)# voice

D. Switch(config)# vlan voice

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

An administrator will be replacing a campus switching infrastructure with AOS-CX switches that support VSX capabilities. The campus involves a core, as well as multiple access layers. Which feature should the administrator implement to allow both VSX-capable core switches to process traffic sent to the default gateway in the campus VLANs?

A. VRF

B. VRRP

C. IP helper

D. Active gateway

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

What is correct regarding the tunneling of user traffic between AOS-CX switches and Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs)?

A. Uses IPSec to protect the management and data traffic

B. Uses IPSec to protect the management traffic

C. Supports only port-based tunneling

D. Uses the same management protocol as Aruba APs

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

An administrator is implementing a multicast solution in a multi-VLAN network. Which statement is true about the configuration of the switches in the network?

A. IGMP snooping must be enabled on all interfaces on a switch to intelligently forward traffic

B. IGMP requires join and leave messages to graft and prune multicast streams between switches

C. IGMP must be enabled on all routed interfaces where multicast traffic will traverse

D. IGMP must be enabled on all interfaces where multicast sources and receivers are connected

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

How is voice traffic prioritized correctly on AOS-CX switches?

A. By defining device profiles with QOS settings

B. By placing it in the strict priority queue

C. By implementing voice VLANs

D. By implementing weighted fair queueing (WFQ)

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Examine the network exhibit.

A company has a guest implementation for wireless and wired access. Wireless access is implemented through a third-party vendor. The company is concerned about wired guest traffic traversing the same network as the employee traffic. The network administrator has established a GRE tunnel between AOSCX switches where guests are connected to a routing switch in the DMZ.

Which feature should the administrator implement to ensure that the guest traffic is tunneled to the DMZ while the employee traffic is forwarded using OSPF?

A. OSPF route maps using the “set metric” command

B. Policy-based routing (PBR)

C. User-based tunneling (UBT) D. Classifier policies

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

An administrator has an AOS-CX switch configured with:

router ospf 1 area 0 area 1 stub no-summary

It is the only ABR for area 1. The switch has the appropriate adjacencies to routing switches in areas 0 and

1. The current routes in each area are: Area 0: 5 routes (LSA Type 1 and 2) Area 1: 10 routes (LSA Type 1 and 2) External routes: 2 (LSA Type 5)

Based on the above configuration, how many OSPF routes will routing switches see in Area 1?

A. 15

B. 6

C. 11

D. 12

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

A network administrator is managing a network that deploys a multicast service. The administrator has multiple streams successfully being routed by PIM-DM in the network. The administrator then adds a new stream with a destination address of 239.0.0.1. However, clients who have not joined the stream are receiving it.

What should the administrator do to fix this problem?

A. Verify that IGMP is enabled between the switches connecting the multicast source and receivers

B. Change the destination multicast address to 239.1.1.1

C. Define the 239.0.0.1 stream on the rendezvous point (RP)

D. Define the 239.0.0.1 stream on the PIM candidate bootstrap router

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Which protocols are used by NetEdit to interact with third-party devices? (Choose two.)

A. telnet

B. SNMP

C. SSH

D. Restful API

E. CDP

Correct Answer: BC


Question 14:

An administrator is implementing a downloadable user role solution involving AOS-CX switches. The AAA solution and the AOS-CX switches can successfully authenticate users; however, the role information fails to download to the switches. What policy should be added to an intermediate firewall to allow the downloadable role function to succeed?

A. Allow TCP 443

B. Allow UDP 1811

C. Allow UDP 8211

D. Allow TCP 22

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

A network administrator is attempting to troubleshoot a connectivity issue between a group of users and a particular server. The administrator needs to examine the packets over a period of time from their desktop; however, the administrator is not directly connected to the AOS-CX switch involved with the traffic flow.

What is correct regarding the ERSPAN session that needs to be established on an AOS-CX switch? (Choose two.)

A. On the source AOS-CX switch, the destination specified is the switch to which the administrator\’s desktop is connected

B. On the source AOS-CX switch, the destination specified is the administrator\’s desktop

C. The encapsulation protocol used is GRE

D. The encapsulation protocol used is VXLAN

E. The encapsulation protocol is UDP

Correct Answer: BC


New Updated JN0-648 Exam Dumps Free Download

New Updated JN0-648 Exam Dumps Free Download

Attention please! Here is the shortcut to pass your Hotest JN0-648 vce exam! Get yourself well prepared for the JNCIP-ENT Jun 14,2022 Newest JN0-648 free download Enterprise Routing and Switching, Professional (JNCIP-ENT) exam is really a hard job. But don’t worry! We We, provides the most update JN0-648 actual tests. With We latest JN0-648 pdf, you’ll pass the JNCIP-ENT Latest JN0-648 vce Enterprise Routing and Switching, Professional (JNCIP-ENT) exam in an easy way

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest JN0-648 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the JN0-648 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our JN0-648 dumps.Questions and answers from JN0-648 free dumps are 100% free and guaranteed. See our full JN0-648 dumps if you want to get a further understanding of the materials.

Question 1:

Which BGP message type contains NLRI information?

A. notification

B. keepalive

C. update

D. open

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Click the Exhibit button.

Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are true regarding Q-in-Q tunneling? (Choose two.)

A. The C-VLAN traffic will be encapsulated with an outer VLAN tag of 150.

B. The C-VLANs 100-200 will be sent as the inner VLAN tag.

C. The C-VLAN 150 will be sent as the inner VLAN tag.

D. The C-VLAN traffic will be encapsulated with an outer VLAN tag of 10.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 3:

What is the correct authentication processing order on EX Series switches when multiple Layer 2 authentication methods are enabled?

A. MAC RADIUS –andgt; 802.1X –andgt; captive portal

B. 802.1X –andgt; MAC RADIUS –andgt; captive portal

C. 802.1X –andgt; captive portal –andgt; MAC RADIUS

D. captive portal –andgt; MAC RADIUS –andgt; 802.1X

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

You are implementing a single spanning tree instance in your network and want to use the protocol that will give you the best convergence time in the event of a physical network failure of the root bridge.

Which spanning tree protocol will satisfy this requirement?

A. RSTP

B. STP

C. MSTP

D. VSTP

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

You have PIM SM multicast configured and running in a network environment comprised of EX4300 devices. Your customers report increased delay when switching channels using IPTV. To help decrease the delay, you implement PIM join load balancing. You add the set protocols pim join-loadbalance command to the configuration. After committing, you notice that the flows are still using only one path.

In this scenario, which statement is correct?

A. The clear pim join-distributioncommand must be issued.

B. The interfaces must be specified to use for load balancing.

C. IGMP snooping must also be configured.

D. PIM join load-balancing only works for PIM-DM.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

You have configured CoS on a Junos device. A packet is classified as best effort by a behavior aggregate (BA) classifier, and as expedited forwarding by a multifield (MF) classifier.

Which statement is true in this scenario?

A. The packet will be placed in a queue associated with the BA classifier.

B. The packet will be placed into the queue which is least congested.

C. The packet will be placed into the queue that has the most bandwidth assigned to it.

D. The packet will be placed in a queue associated with the MF classifier.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Click the Exhibit button.

A router is attempting to form an OSPF neighborship with another router. However, the OSPF neighborship fails to establish completely.

Referring to the exhibit, what is the problem?

A. There is an interface type mismatch.

B. There is an interface subnet mask mismatch.

C. There is an OSPF area mismatch.

D. There is an interface MTU mismatch.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

You are currently using VLAN IDs 2 through 300 within your Layer 2 domain and you need to configure VSTP to prevent loops. You must ensure that all VLANs are loop free.

In this scenario, which statement is correct?

A. You must ensure that the VLANs are balanced between two different root bridges.

B. You must enable RSTP to account for all VLANs.

C. You must ensure that the bridge priority is set to the lowest value on all switches in the Layer 2 domain.

D. You must enable all VLANs, 2 through 300, under the VSTP configuration.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

What are two supported PoE management modes? (Choose two.)

A. class

B. standalone

C. static

D. mixed

Correct Answer: AC


Question 10:

Click the Exhibit button.

You recently implemented the configuration shown in the exhibit. After committing these changes, the community devices connected to AS-1 are not able to communicate with the appropriate community devices connected to AS-2.

What must be done to allow these community devices to communicate?

A. You must configure an isolation VLAN ID under the vlan-pri VLAN on the AS-2 switch.

B. You must configure the ge-0/0/10 interface on AS-1 as the inter-switch link

C. You must configure the ge-0/0/1 interface on both switches as the inter-switch links.

D. You must configure an isolation VLAN ID under the vlan-pri VLAN on both switches.

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Click the Exhibit button.

The policy shown in the exhibit is applied as an export policy to your BGP neighborship. Which action will be taken for route 12.233.45.5?

A. It will rejected by term 2.

B. It will be accepted by term 1.

C. It will be accepted by the default policy.

D. It will be evaluated by the next policy.

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Which two statements are correct about a functional ESI LAG interface? (Choose two.)

A. The LACP system ID must be the same.

B. The ESI values must be the same.

C. The LACP system ID must be different.

D. The ESI values must be different.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 13:

You have an MX960 configured as a Fusion aggregation device (AD) and two QFX5100 switches as satellite devices (SD). You have configured local-switchingfor each SD. A packet with an unknown MAC address is received on one of the SD extended ports.

Which statement is correct in this scenario?

A. The packet is dropped and a reject message is sent out to the port where it was received.

B. The packet is silently discarded and a reject message is sent to the AD.

C. The packet is flooded out of all the ports on the SD except the one where it was received.

D. The packet is sent to the AD to be processed and forwarded.

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

When configuring class of service, what would you use to allocate bandwidth to a forwarding class?

A. buffer depth

B. transmit rate

C. bandwidth

D. speed

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

You are using 802.1X in your access network consisting of EX Series switches. You recently had a failure with your RADIUS server which resulted in authenticating client devices being denied access to the network. You want to change this behavior so that authenticating clients are directed to a remediation VLAN.

Which RADIUS server failback setting satisfies this requirement?

A. permit

B. move

C. sustain

D. deny

Correct Answer: B


[PDF and VCE] Free Share 33810x PDF Exam Preparation Materials with Real Exam Questions

[PDF and VCE] Free Share 33810x PDF Exam Preparation Materials with Real Exam Questions

Attention please! Here is the shortcut to pass your Hotest 33810x exam questions exam! Get yourself well prepared for the ACDS Newest 33810x practice Avaya Aura Contact Center Solution Design Exam exam is really a hard job. But don’t worry! We We, provides the most update 33810x braindumps. With We latest 33810x vce, you’ll pass the ACDS Jun 13,2022 Latest 33810x pdf Avaya Aura Contact Center Solution Design Exam exam in an easy way

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 33810x preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the 33810x free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 33810x dumps.33810x free dumps are questions from the latest full 33810x dumps. Check 33810x free questions to get a better understanding of 33810x exams.

Question 1:

A design specialist prepares for a customer meeting, and knows that data on the customer, their Industry, and the possible competition, will need to be collected.

Which additional information is also needed?

A. The salaries of the executives In the meeting

B. The design diagram for discussion with customer

C. The Avaya solutions and services Avaya could offer

D. The model numbers of the existing contact center equipment

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Media Servers are needed in a SIP-enabled AACC

Which deployment allows the co-resident installation of Voice and Multimedia Contact Center with Media Server?

A. Physical Mid-Range Server

B. Physical Entry-Level Server

C. VMware Mid-Range Server

D. VMware High-End Server

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

An Avaya representative knows the sales cycle, and uses It regularly to get a good understanding problems and quantify the costs.

Which statement describes the Qualification step?

A. It proposes, communicates, and agrees upon the detailed solution.

B. It documents the details, and quantifies the cost.

C. It Is a discussion driver to help draw out and Identify the problem(s) to be solved.

D. It is the final Invoice that serves as the formal contract acknowledgement.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

When upgrading existing AACC Systems, which Avaya Engagement AACC package is available?

A. Agent Greeting

B. Instant Message

C. Resilience

D. Geographic Node

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Avaya One Source has orderable quotes for the Greenfield customer and existing customer.

How can a quote from Avaya One Source -Order center be placed as an order?

A. By using Sales Force Updates

B. By using Create Proposal SSR

C. By using Create Order

D. By using Create Upload Order SSR

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A Contact Center manager wants a thin-client desktop with a powerful widget-driven approach.

Which three deployments are allowed for Avaya IX TMWorkspaces? (Choose three.)

A. One-X Agent

B. Multimedia Contact Server only

C. Voice and Multimedia Contact Server without Avaya Media Server

D. Voice and Multimedia Contact Server with Avaya Media Server

E. Voice Contact Server only

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 7:

A Contact Center manager knows that a modern agent Interface which can deliver all of the relevant customer information, creates a better customer experience.

Which two agent interfaces are supported with AACC Release 7.1? (Choose two)

A. Avaya IXTM Workplace

B. Avaya Agent Desktop a

C. Avaya IXTM Workspaces

D. Avaya one-X Agent Desktop

Correct Answer: BC


Question 8:

The Avaya Software Investment Protection Policy (ASIPP) Offer has six codes for three packages with AACC Release 7. ASIPP codes are used to migrate the base system and voice agents from the current system to AACC R7 on Avaya Aura.

The Agent for Preview and Progressive Outbound Is bundled with which package?

A. AACC 7 Outbound ASIPP package

B. AACC 7 Resilience (High Availability) ASIPP package

C. AACC Multimedia ASIPP package

D. AACC 7 Base System and Voice ASIPP package

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

An administrator wants different real-time reporting displays which support the daily work of supervisors. Which two displays are available with AACC? (Choose two.)

A. Call by Call Display

B. Bill Board collection

C. Supervisor Chart

D. Agent Maps

Correct Answer: CD


Question 10:

The IT manager wants a powerful tool that can adapt and modify the contact flow in AACC-Which tool is used to change the contact flow in AACC?

A. Contact Center Server Utility

B. Contact Center Orchestration Designer

C. Contact Center Manager Administrator

D. Contact Center Manager Multimedia Administrator

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

A design specialist has scheduled his first discovery conversation with a customer. Which three factors would the specialist be able to address with the customer? (Choose three.)

A. Uncertainty

B. Fear

C. Doubt

D. Anxiety

E. Worry

Correct Answer: BCE


Question 12:

AACC has an inbuilt Outbound Management.

Which resource controls the Preview Dialing method?

A. Manager

B. Administrator

C. Supervisor

D. Agent

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

There are several factors why customers will buy from Avaya which Include:

The sales person understand their business.

The sales person being perceive as a trusted adviser.

The proposal contains real value in a manner relevant to them.

What are two additional factors? (Choose two,)

A. The proposal value Is obvious, so It is not discussed.

B. Avaya can deliver what has been promised.

C. Avaya solution Is technologically better or equivalent to other proposals but less expensive.

D. The executive summary section of the proposal highlights the solution features.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 14:

The CEO of a service company wants context rich information that Is Important for better customer experience. Which development platform allows customers to add new capabilities to their solution?

A. Avaya BreezeTM

B. Avaya Experience Portal Platform

C. Avaya Performance Applications Platform

D. Avaya Applications Platform

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit.

A Contact Center administrator uses different tools and applications In the Contact Center environment. Which application is shown In the exhibit?

A. Avaya Agent Desktop

B. Avaya one-X Agent Desktop

C. Agent Map

D. Avaya Contact Center Orchestration Designer

Correct Answer: D


Latest CCA-500 Exam CCA-500 Dumps 100% Free Download

Latest CCA-500 Exam CCA-500 Dumps 100% Free Download

Attention please! Here is the shortcut to pass your Jun 12,2022 Newest CCA-500 vce dumps exam! Get yourself well prepared for the CCAH Hotest CCA-500 practice Cloudera Certified Administrator for Apache Hadoop (CCAH) exam is really a hard job. But don’t worry! We We, provides the most update CCA-500 vce. With We latest CCA-500 real exam questions, you’ll pass the CCAH Newest CCA-500 vce Cloudera Certified Administrator for Apache Hadoop (CCAH) exam in an easy way

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest CCA-500 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the CCA-500 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our CCA-500 dumps.The following questions and answers are from the latest CCA-500 free dumps. It will help you understand the validity of the latest CCA-500 dumps.

Question 1:

You are configuring your cluster to run HDFS and MapReducer v2 (MRv2) on YARN. Which two daemons needs to be installed on your cluster\’s master nodes? (Choose two)

A. HMaster

B. ResourceManager

C. TaskManager

D. JobTracker

E. NameNode

F. DataNode

Correct Answer: BE