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[Newest Version] Free Geekcert IBM C2150-508 PDF and Exam Questions Download 100% Pass Exam

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Question 1:

A software installation task has been developed which requires the target endpoint to be restarted upon action completion. The administrator is required to notify the end users of the pending reboot and provide the opportunity to delay the reboot for four hours. Which Take Action tab accomplishes this?

A. Offer

B. Execution

C. Messages

D. Post Action

Correct Answer: A

Reference:

http://pic.dhe.ibm.com/infocenter/tivihelp/v26r1/topic/com.ibm.tem.doc_8.2/Tivoli_Endpoint _Manager_Console_Operators_Guide.pdf (page 115)


Question 2:

Which three conditions must be met for an endpoint to return results for an analysis?

A. The analysis must be activated.

B. The applicability relevance must evaluate to True.

C. A master operator must first activate the analysis.

D. The endpoint must be in the domain containing the analysis.

E. The endpoint must be subscribed to the site containing the analysis.

F. The analysis property definitions must be the same as the applicability relevance.

Correct Answer: ADF


Question 3:

What is an action state for a Fixlet and not a task?

A. Fixed

B. Waiting

C. Not Relevant

D. Pending Download

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which tab of the Take Action dialog box allows for notification to end users when an action is running-on targeted endpoints?

A. Offer

B. Messages

C. Pre-Action

D. Notification

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://www-03.ibm.com/certify/tests/objC2010-508.shtml


Question 5:

When Send Refresh is sent to a computer (or group of computers) using the IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) console, how does the endpoint respond?

A. The client evaluates new content and sends applicability responses back to the IEM server.

B. The client sends a heartbeat back to the IEM server and returns the results of all client settings and properties.

C. The client on the endpoint immediately resets its evaluation cycle and begins evaluating content in the evaluation cycle again.

D. The client sends a heartbeat to the IEM server. It then sends the results of any cached information to the IEM server. The client then flushes any cached information and begins evaluating all content.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A new Windows computer is added to the environment but it is not being displayed in the IBM Endpoint Manager console. What can be done to see this new computer in the console?

A. Wait for the Refresh Computers Interval to be reached (default 15 minutes).

B. Remotely connect to the new system and restart the BESAgent – Notification service.

C. Click the Refresh Console button to reload the local cache from the BESEnterprise database.

D. Run the BES console – Refresh BES clients task against the system requiring the data to be synchronized.

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

An operator just received an analysis in .bes format and would like to test the content. How can the analysis be imported into the IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) console for testing?

A. Only Fixlets and tasks can be imported into I EM, not analyses.

B. In the I EM console select the Analyses node, right-click and select Import. The analysis will be activated automatically when it is imported.

C. Double-click the .bes file, select the appropriate Site and Domain, and click OK to save. The analysis will be activated automatically when it is imported.

D. In the I EM console, All Content Domain, Fixlets and Tasks node: right-click the .bes files to import. The analysis will be activated automatically when it is imported.

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

When adding a Fixlet or task to a baseline, which option is used automatically as the action?

A. Action 1

B. Quick Action

C. Default Action

D. No action is used automatically.

Correct Answer: C

Both Fixlets and Tasks might have a Default Action, allowing you to simply click from the list to deploy it. They can both be grouped into Baselines, allowing higher levels of automation. If you create a Baseline of Fixlets or Tasks which all

contain default Actions, you can turn the tedious chores of maintaining a corporate policy or common operating environment into a single-click operation.

Reference:

http://pic.dhe.ibm.com/infocenter/tivihelp/v26r1/index.jsp?topic=/com.ibm.tem.doc_8.2 /Platform/Console/c_introducing_fixlets_and_tasks.html


Question 9:

Which content domain contains content related to the updating of operating systems and specific applications?

A. Server Automation

B. Endpoint Protection

C. Patch Management

D. BigFix Management

Correct Answer: C

Reference: http://www-03.ibm.com/certify/tests/objC2010-508.shtml


Question 10:

While testing some custom content a user wants to restart the client on their Windows system to force the client to sync up. Which service should they restart?

A. BES Client

B. BES Agent

C. BES Plug-in

D. BES Endpoint

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Patch Management for AIX has various methods for obtaining updated files. Which native AIX method can IBM Endpoint Manager integrate with?

A. AIX Download plug-in

B. AIX Download Cacher

C. Yellowdog Update Manager (YUM)

D. Network Installation Management (NIM)

Correct Answer: D

Reference: http://www01.ibm.com/common/ssi/ShowDoc.wss?docURL=/common/ssi/rep_ca/4/897/ENUS214- 014/index.htmlandlang=enandrequest_locale=en (ibm endpoint manager for patch management improvements)


Question 12:

Where can detail Action Information on a per target basis be viewed in the IBM Endpoint Manager console?

A. Select the computer and navigate to the Action History tab.

B. Right-click on the action and select View Detailed Information.

C. Right-click on a computer and select View Detailed Action Information.

D. Click on the Computers tab within the action and double-click on the target endpoint.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Which statement is true regarding a task?

A. A task is a template that does not have success criteria.

B. A task is a template that contains the binaries for configuring an endpoint.

C. A task is a template containing only Relevance that can make a change to an endpoint or its client settings.

D. A task is a template containing Applicability Relevance and an action script used to correct issues on an endpoint such as performing configuration changes.

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

A user has 10 new Windows server computers that she wants to add to the existing Windows servers manual computer group. How can she add the new servers to this group?

A. Tools > Add Computers to Manual Computer Group

B. select all of the new Windows Server computers, right-click, and select View as Group

C. view the Windows Servers computer group and click the button Add Computers to Group

D. select all of the new Windows Server computers, right-click, and select Add To Manual Group

Correct Answer: D

Reference:

http://pic.dhe.ibm.com/infocenter/tivihelp/v26r1/topic/com.ibm.tem.doc_8.2/Tivoli_Endpoint _Manager_Console_Operators_Guide.pdf (page 79)


Question 15:

An operator in the Testing group has temporarily locked a managed computer so that it will not be affected by ongoing testing. She is now ready to unlock the computer and finds the computer in the Computers node of the All Content domain. How would she unlock the computer?

A. Right-click the computer and select Unlock Computer from the Context menu.

B. Right-click the computer, select Edit Computer Settings, and change the value of the _BESCIient_LockingStatus setting to 0.

C. Select the computer in the computer list to display the details in the work area and then click the Unlock button in the work area.

D. Right-click the computer, select Edit Computer Settings, and clear the check box beside the Locked option in the Edit Computer Settings dialog.

Correct Answer: D

Reference:

http://pic.dhe.ibm.com/infocenter/tivihelp/v26r1/topic/com.ibm.tem.doc_8.2/Tivoli_Endpoint _Manager_Console_Operators_Guide.pdf (page 78)


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Question 1:

Which key uniquely identifies a row in a table?

A. foreiqn

B. primary

C. local

D. superkey

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which statement creates a composite key?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Which command should you use to give a user permission to read the data in a table?

A. ALLOW SELECT

B. LET READ

C. PERMIT READ

D. GRANT SELECT

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Which keyword can be used in a create table statement?

A. ORDER BY

B. DISTINCT

C. GROUP BY

D. UNIQUE

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

You need to store product quantities, and you want to minimize the amount of storage space that is used. Which data type should you use?

A. INTEGER

B. DOUBLE

C. COUNT

D. FLOAT

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Which statement will result in the creation of an index?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

You need to store product names that vary from three to 30 characters. You also need to minimize the amount of storage space that is used.

Which data type should you use?

A. VARCHAR (3, 30)

B. CHAR (3, 30)

C. VARCHAR (30)

D. CHAR (30)

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

One reason to create a stored procedure is to:

A. Improve performance.

B. Minimize storage space.

C. Bypass case sensitivity requirements.

D. Give the user control of the query logic.

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

You have a table named Product. You create a view that includes all the products from the Product table that are in the Furniture category.

You execute a statement on the Product table that deletes all the products in the Furniture category.

After you execute the statement, the result set of the view is:

A. Empty

B. Deleted

C. Unchanged

D. Archived

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

In SQL, an insert statement is used to add a:

A. User to a database.

B. Row of data to a table.

C. Table to a database.

D. Column to a table definition.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

You have two tables. Each table has three rows.

How many rows will be included in the Cartesian product of these two tables?

A. 0

B. 3

C. 6

D. 9

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

You execute the following statement:

SELECT EmployeeID, FirstName, DepartmentName FROM Employee, Department

This type of operation is called a/an:

A. Intersection

B. Outer join

C. Equi-join

D. Cartesian product

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

You have the following table definition:

CREATE TABLE Product

(ID INTEGER PRIMARY KEY,

Name VARCHAR(20),

Quantity INTEGER)

The Product table contains the following data.

You execute the following statement:

SELECT Name FROM Product WHERE Quantity IS NOT NULL

How many rows are returned?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

E. 4

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

You need to populate a table named EmployeeCopy with data from an existing table named Employee.

Which statement should you use?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

You execute the following statement:

This statement is an example of a/an:

A. Subquery

B. Union

C. Outer join

D. Cartesian product

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

The Human Resources department is conducting a class for new employees when the air conditioning stops working. Which of the following should the instructor do FIRST?

A. Report the incident to the maintenance department

B. Tell the employees it is not unbearable and continue with the course

C. Cancel the class and reschedule the class for another time.

D. Continue on with the instruction ignoring the temperature issue.

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

After a training class was completed, the instructor conducted several passive on the job observations of each learner who attended the class. Which of the following is the primary benefit of the observations?

A. It measures the application of the skills taught.

B. It validates the quality of the course material.

C. It requires the learners to use what they learned.

D. It helps to reinforce the learning concepts.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

An instructor is conducting a review of written instructions and is aware that the preferred learning style of one of the learners is kinesthetic. Which of the following is the BEST choice for the instructor?

A. Adjust the delivery of the review to include more graphs and charts as part of the exercise.

B. Administer an exam to verify learner\’s knowledge of the material.

C. Deliver the curriculum as defined in the documentation so that the rest of the class does not fall behind.

D. Adjust the delivery of the review to include a demonstration as part of the exercise.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

To illustrate a point, the trainer uses a joke that the class does not understand. Which of the following should the trainer do next?

A. Attempt to save the situation by telling another joke

B. Pretend nothing happened and continue with the lesson

C. Retell the joke explaining its punch line

D. Decide not to use humor in future presentations

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

If a class has some slow learners and some fast learners, which of the following is the correct pace in which to present material to the class?

A. To the pace of the slowest learner

B. To the pace of the average learner

C. To the pace of the course suggestions

D. To the pace of the fastest learner

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

At the end of a class, Internet access becomes unavailable. The client provides an online evaluation form for each class. Each learner is required to fill out an evaluation of the course. Which of the following should the instructor do to fulfill the client\’s requirements?

A. Contact the IT staff to determine when the Internet connection will be available.

B. Ask the learners to complete the evaluation form after returning to their desks.

C. Submit in the post-class report why evaluations were not complete.

D. Provide paper copies of the online evaluation to the learners.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

At the end of a class, the instructor provides an online evaluation of the course to the learners. Which of the following is MOST appropriate to put on the evaluation? (Select TWO).

A. Instructor\’s presentation abilities

B. Accessibility of the facility

C. Technical accuracy of the course material

D. Amount of time the learner studied for the course

E. Job title of the learner

Correct Answer: AC


Question 8:

An instructor notices that several learners in a virtual classroom have not been actively participating. The learners are still connected to the session. Which of the following would be the FIRST action to re-engage the learners in the class?

A. Send them a private message to make sure they understand the material

B. Survey the class with a question and require a response.

C. Use more visual demonstrations to get the learners interested.

D. Send the class a public message that everyone needs to participate.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

An instructor is beginning a course and wants to measure the level of expertise of the learners. Which of the following is the BEST method for measuring the level of understanding over the course material?

A. Ask the learners about their level of understanding over the course material.

B. Assume that the class has a medium level of understanding over the course material.

C. Deliver a pre-test covering the course objectives.

D. Ask another instructor who has taught the learners before.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Which of the following is the BEST example of a probing questioning?

A. Ask a question about a scenario that relates to a subject or process.

B. Ask a general question followed by more detailed questions on a subject or process.

C. Ask a basic question and ask the learner to apply a real world answer.

D. Ask a specific question and then have it redirected to other learners to probe their understanding

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

When a learner responds incorrectly to a question during class, an instructor should give some acknowledgement for the answer. Which of the following is the BEST reason for this action?

A. Use the incorrect answer to move the class to a different topic

B. It enforces active participation and creates teachable moments

C. Wrong answers should be pointed out and corrected quickly to prevent misconceptions

D. It ensures participation is limited to the correct answers

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

An instructor is lecturing on a manufacturing approach to ordering. The instructor is attempting to explain the concept that every order to purchase a finished product has an effect on the complete process from start to finish. Which of the following is an example of the effective use of props to demonstrate this principle?

A. Drawing pictures on a white board or a flip chart to indicate each new step in the process.

B. Using an automated slide presentation with each slide representing a step in the process.

C. Lining up dominoes to indicate each new step in the process and then knocking them over.

D. Handing each learner a different object as each step is introduced and then having them talk about their objects.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

An instructor completed the required content of a technical course early. The instructor decided to fill the time by writing tasks on the board and assigning them to individual students. A timeline was provided for the overall task completion and all students were expected to apply their new knowledge to the task assigned. The instructor then proceeded to work on plans for thenext course in this situation, which of the following statements about the appropriateness of the activity is true?

A. It was appropriate because use of the exercises covered the gap in the timing of the course.

B. It was appropriate because the students were given a frame of reference upon which to apply what they learned.

C. It was inappropriate because it placed a heavy burden on students to successfully complete the exercise.

D. It was inappropriate because it did not offer students a stated learning result applicable to their experience

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

While conducting a class the power goes out. After an hour it is restored. Which of the following would be the BEST method of delivering the remainder of the course?

A. Condense the remaining topics.

B. Reduce the break time for the remainder of the day to catch-up on the missed material

C. Give the learners home work to do independent study on the missed material.

D. Have the learners stay late to make-up for the missed course time.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

An instructor asks a class if they understand the material being covered. Which of the following BEST describes the skill the instructor is demonstrating?

A. Plan and use a variety of reinforcement techniques during training.

B. Determine the learners need for clarification and/or feedback.

C. Evaluate the effectiveness of the training to meet the learning objectives.

D. Compare learner achievement with learning objectives.

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Your company\’s security policy prohibits access to the Internet. You already installed an instance of Oracle Solaris 11 on an M-series server for base testing. You used the text install media to install the system. You also installed a package repository on the same system. There are 10 M-series servers that have just been installed on the local network. Can you immediately install an AI server on your testing machine order to install Oracle Solaris 11 on these 10 servers?

A. Yes, by using the existing Solaris 10 Jumpstart server.

B. Yes, by using the text install media for the AI software.

C. Yes, by using the Installed package repository.

D. No, you must download the AI .iso image from Oracle first.

E. No, the Solaris large-server group must be installed because it contains the AI setup tools.

F. No, the Solaris 11 full n repository must be installed on the AI server.

G. No, you must have a prebuilt image that was created by the distribution constructor.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Consider the following command:

zonestat q r physical-memory R high z dbzone p p “zones” 10 24h 60m

What data will this command report?

A. The dbzone\’s physical memory usage every hour for a day, displaying the 10 higher usage intervals for each hour.

B. All the dbzone\’s resource usage, excluding physical memory, 10 times an hour for a day.

C. The dbzone\’s CPU, virtual memory, and networking utilization every hour for a day, displaying top 10 usage intervals.

D. The dbzone\’s memory and CPU utilization every 10 seconds for a day, displaying peak usage each hour.

E. The dbzone\’s physical memory usage every 10 seconds for a day. displaying peak usage each hour.

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

What is the purpose of the Service Management Facility (SMF) profiles?

A. an XML file that describes current services and the instances

B. allows the customization of services and instances

C. stores configuration information about each service instance

D. used to start and stop processes or services

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

What is the effect of configuring privileges via the zonecfg utility?

A. It forces every /one process to run with the same privileges.

B. It restricts zone processes to the inherited set of zsched\’s privileges.

C. It restricts zone processes to the inherited set of zoneadmd\’s privileges.

D. It removes some privileges that are normally available in the zone.

E. It can add some new privileges to or exclude some default privileges from the zone.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 5:

You created a virtual network of three zones.

One network hosts a web server.

Another hosts an application server used by the web server.

The third zone host a video streaming application.

You already configured a flow to prioritize the video traffic over the web server traffic. You now need to continuously monitor the flow.

Which tool must you use to gather the flow data?

A. the system activity reporter (SAR)

B. extended accounting

C. the flowstat command

D. the kstat utility

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Which three statements describe Solaris 11 boot environments (BEs)?

A. A full backup of your OS image is provided.

B. Packages can be installed and uninstalled in an inactive BE.

C. The OS can be upgraded in an active BF while the system is live without impacting production.

D. A new BE can be created from the snapshot of an existing BE.

E. A BE can become active without rebooting the system.

F. An active BE can be unmounted and upgraded without impacting production.

Correct Answer: CDF


Question 7:

How do you add a test address to an IPMP group?

A. Use ipadm create-addr to add the address to a member interface.

B. Use ipadm create-addr to add the address to the IPMP interface.

C. Use ipadm create-ip to add an address to a member interface.

D. Use ipadm create-ip to add an address to the IPMP interface.

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Which host management solution does HP recommend using with ProLiant Gen8 servers?

A. SNMP Agents

B. Agentless Management Service (AMS)

C. WBEM providers

D. Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI)

Correct Answer: B

Reference:http://h20000.www2.hp.com/bc/docs/support/SupportManual/c03488111/c0348 8111.pdf(page 6, see Management with HP SIM 7)


Question 2:

Which Virtual Connect module enables FCoE or iSCSI connectivity for BladeSystem server blades?

A. VC1/10Gb-F

B. VC-FC8/24

C. VC FIexFabric

D. VCFIex-10

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Microsoft Windows BitLocker Encryption feature uses a TPM microcontroller chip to store certificates and encryption keys on a DL380 G7.

Which action must a field engineer perform before upgrading server firmware and installing an additional storage controller?

A. Create new certificates and encryption keys.

B. Disable BitLocker.

C. Delete certificates and encryption keys.

D. Disable TPM.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

A customer placed a service call after installing genuine HP memory from a ProLiant DL380 Gen7 server into a new ProLiant DL380 Gen8 server and receiving a POST message that the memory is not HP Smart Memory.

What caused this to happen?

A. The memory is defective and is not discovered during POST.

B. The memory is not in the correct processor Bank.

C. Only Gen8 memory can be detected as Smart Memory.

D. The memory is not authentic HP memory.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

A customer has a ProLiant DL380p Gen8 server with one CPU and four 16 GB RDIMMs with 24 total DIMM slots. The customer wants to increase the memory in this server.

Which memory option is valid?

A. Remove the existing memory and populate all memory slots with UDIMM memory.

B. Populate the remaining 20 memory slots with additional UDIMM memory.

C. Populate another eight memory slots with additional RDIMM memory.

D. Populate the remaining 20 memory slots with additional RDIMM memory.

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

You replaced a Smart Array P812 in a ProLiant DL380 G7 storage server. What should you do next?

A. Check the FBWC charge.

B. Replace the cache module.

C. Verify that the firmware level is current.

D. Install the BBWC battery.

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Which button should you press to enter the RBSU during POST?

A. F8

B. F9

C. F11

D. F12

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

You need to capture the configuration and support dump of several Virtual Connect domains. Which tool can you use to perform this action from a central system?

A. Insight Control

B. HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)

C. Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager (VCEM)

D. Virtual Connect Support Utility (VCSU)

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

What happens when you mix low-reduced DIMMs (LRDIMM) and unbuffered DIMMs (UDIMM)?

A. The server blade will not boot up.

B. The server blade boots up in safe mode.

C. The server blade boots up normally if you do not mix the DIMMS in the same bank.

D. The server blade boots up in a loop mode.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

You need to check the firmware revision of the disk drives installed in a ProLiant DL380Gen8 server. What can you use to check the revision while the server is online?

A. Option ROM Configuration for Arrays (ORCA)

B. HP Insight Diagnostics

C. Integrated Management Log

D. Array Configuration Utility (ACU)

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

What is the name of the HP agent that enables a customer to manage HP software that is stored in a user-defined repository?

A. Web-Based Enterprise Management (WBEM)

B. Version Control Repository Manager (VCRM)

C. Version Control Agent

D. Data Collection Reports

Correct Answer: B

Reference:http://h20565.www2.hp.com/portal/site/hpsc/template.BINARYPORTLET/public/ kb/docDisplay/resource.process/?spf_p.tpst=kbDocDisplay_ws_BIandspf_p.rid_kbDocDispla y=docDisplayResURLandjavax.portlet.begCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetokenandspf_p.rst_kb DocDisplay=wsrp-resourceState=docId%3Demr_na-c03168954- 2%7CdocLocale% 253Den_USandjavax.portlet.endCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken(pa ge 20, see HP version control repository manager)


Question 12:

From which location does Active Health collect data?

A. iLO

B. SMH

C. Event Log

D. IML

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which statements are correct about HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) 7.0 Agentless Management? (Select two.)

A. HP SIM communicates with the CPU and collects essential data for the operating system.

B. Agentless Management is provided by the CPU.

C. HP SIM communicates with the iLO Management Engine to collect hardware data.

D. The Agentless Management Service runs on the host to provide software information directly to the iLO Management Engine.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 14:

What should a support engineer use to perform a firmware update to a BladeSystem PCI Expansion Blade?

A. HP SmartStart

B. HP SUM

C. Firmware Maintenance DVD

D. Onboard Administrator GUI

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

A customer lost the password information for the Onboard Administrator of a C7000 enclosure and asks you to restore administrator access.

How should you do this?

A. Connect to the serial port of the Onboard Administrator and press the reset button to restore the default password.

B. Use HP SUM in Recovery mode.

C. Run the Onboard Administrator Recover option from one of the server blades in the enclosure.

D. Run Remote Insight Board Command Language (RIBCL) from the Insight Display.

Correct Answer: A

Reference:http://h20566.www2.hp.com/portal/site/hpsc/template.PAGE/public/kb/docDispla y/?sp4ts.oid=1844065andspf_p.tpst=kbDocDisplayandspf_p.prp_kbDocDisplay=wsrp- navigationalState=docId%3Demr_na-c0111586616%7CdocLocale%3D%7CcalledBy%3Dandjavax.portlet.begCacheTok=com.vigne tte.cachetokenandjavax.portlet.endCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken


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Question 1:

What do me improved operational efficiencies, service levels, and business flexibility provided by HPE Storage solutions create?

A. cost reduction

B. business value

C. stability to customer business

D. customer loyalty

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

When demonstrating File Persona disaster recovery between arrays, which resources go offline and must be restarted? (Select two.)

A. antivirus scanning schedules

B. file share restore process

C. shares

D. snapshots

E. exports

Correct Answer: CE


Question 3:

How does HPE Converged Storage simplify management?

A. It eliminates configuration through the use of auto-discovery.

B. It incorporates business needs into the design.

C. It provides a common CL1 translator for all HPE Storage families.

D. It provides a single pane of glass for all HPE Storage products.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Which storage technology allows a customer to provision a group of servers with 10 TB of storage from only 5 TB of actual physical storage?

A. space reclamation

B. thin provisioning

C. thick provisioning

D. full provisioning

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which file protocols are commonly used in HPE Store Once storage? (Select two.)

A. NTFS

B. CIFS

C. ZFS

D. VFS

E. NFS

Correct Answer: BE


Question 6:

One of your customers is the IT director tor a regional graphic arts company The company has 12 Branches Each Branch requires a local server providing high speed access to video and graphic flies The IT director is asking for a proposal to update the servers at each branch to keep up with increasing demand for high-speed and high-volume storage The customer\’s staff members have limited IT knowledge HPE ProLiant servers with DAS will continue to provide adequate volume for each branch.

Which storage technology can provide appropriate performance and volume size tor this customer?

A. HPE StoreOnce VSA

B. HPE Peer Motion

C. HPE SmartCache

D. HPE Hybrid HDD

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

You are demonstrating adding a new host for an HPE 3PAR StoreServ array to your customer. In addition to the host name, what is the minimum information that is required to create a host profile?

A. virtual volumes

B. virtual file servers

C. host set

D. persona

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

When preparing a business case for a storage solution, which element calculates the time it takes to offset the IT investment through increased revenues or reduced costs?

A. OPEX

B. ROI

C. CAPEX

D. TCO

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

A customer adds additional SSD drives to an HPE 3PAR StoreServ array configured with Adaptive Flash Cache (AFC). Which action is needed to take advantage of the new drives in AFC?

A. Remove the old AFC configuration and recreate a new one.

B. Run tunesys after adding the drives to rebalance the system.

C. Run the statcache command to enable AFC for all Ws on the system.

D. Increase the current AFC configuration to reflect the additional space.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

What are advantages of using SSD drives over performance HDO drives? (Select two)

A. latency

B. encryption support

C. IOPS

D. form factor

E. OS support

Correct Answer: AC


Question 11:

You are designing a solution that will have three new HPE BladeSystems and art HPE 3PAR StoreServ 8000 storage array within four controller nodes. This new environment must Keep the infrastructure within the data center to a minimum.

Which virtual connect module should you recommend to achieve this goal?

A. 16 Gb 24-port Fibre Channel

B. Flex-10/10D

C. 6125XLG

D. FlexFabric-20/40 F8

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

A customer has a Microsoft application environment that uses HPE StoreServ arrays. The customer wants to simplify the process to back up the application data and implement rapid online recovery of the applications, however, the customer cannot accomplish this from the StoreServ Management Console (SSMC).

What must be added to the solution for the customer to accomplish this? (Select two.)

A. Application Suite for Data Protection

B. Recovery Manager

C. Advanced Shadow Copy Services for Windows Servers

D. Virtual Copy

E. VSS provider for HPE 3PAR StoreServ

Correct Answer: BD


Question 13:

What is a business benefit of HPE hyper-converged systems?

A. larger footprint

B. faster deployment

C. lower latency

D. fewer choices

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Which HPE management tool provides a single, integrated management environment for a converged infrastructure?

A. HPE OneView

B. HPE StoreOnce RMC

C. HPE 3PAR SSMC

D. HPE IMC

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

A customer wants to Implement a management and monitoring tool for an HPE B-series SAN switch environment. You present the HPE SAN Network Advisor and its different versions. Which component in me customer\’s environment will help you decide which version to recommend?

A. FICON connectivity

B. FCIP support

C. 4-siot SAN Director

D. 96-port fixed port SAN switch

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

You have a database named SALES that stored the sales data and the salespeople for your company.

You need to create a function that is passed a ProductID and then returns a list of SalesOrderID values for orders that must be associated to a salesperson in the future. The function must be able to return multiple SalesOrderID values.

Part of the correct Transact-SQL has been provided in the answer area below. Enter the code in the answer area that resolves the problem and meets the stated goals or requirements. You can add code within the code that has been

provided as well as below it.

Use the Check Syntax button to verify your work. Any syntax or spelling errors will be reported by line and character position.

Correct Answer: WHERE header.SalesPersonID IS NULL

On line 8 add: IS NULL to get: CREATE FUNCTION dbo.OrdersWithNoSalesPerson(@ProductID INT) RETURNS AS header.SalesOrderID FROM Sales.SalesOrderDetail detail INNER JOIN Sales.SalesOrderHeader header on header.SalesOrderID = detail.SalesOrderID WHERE header.SalesPersonID IS NULL AND detail.ProductID = @ProductID; GO Note: IS NULL determines whether a specified expression is NULL. If the value of expression is NULL, IS NULL returns TRUE; otherwise, it returns FALSE. To determine whether an expression is NULL, use IS NULL or IS NOT NULL instead of comparison operators (such as = or !=). Comparison operators return UNKNOWN when either or both arguments are NULL. References:https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms188795.aspx


Question 2:

You have a database named Sales that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button).

You need to create a query for a report. The query must meet the following requirements: NOT use object delimiters. Use the first initial of the table as an alias. Return the most recent order date for each customer. Retrieve the last name of the person who placed the order.

The solution must support the ANSI SQL-99 standard.

Part of the correct T-SQL statement has been provided in the answer area. Provide the complete code.

Correct Answer: Please review the part for this answer

SELECT C.LastName, MAX(O.OrderDate) AS MostRecentOrderDate FROM Customers AS C INNER JOIN Orders AS O ON C.CustomerID=O.CustomerID GROUP BY C.Lastname ORDER BY MAX (O.OrderDate) DESC


Question 3:

You have a database that contains the tables as shown below:

You have a stored procedure named Procedure1. Procedure1 retrieves all order ids after a specific date. The rows for Procedure1 are not sorted. Procedure1 has a single parameter named Parameter1. Parameter1 uses the varchar type and is configured to pass the specific date to Procedure1. A database administrator discovers that OrderDate is not being compared correctly to Parameter1 after the data type of the column is changed to datetime. You need to update the SELECT statement to meet the following requirements:

The code must NOT use aliases.

The code must NOT use object delimiters.

The objects called in Procedure1 must be able to be resolved by all users.

OrderDate must be compared to Parameter1 after the data type of Parameter1 is changed to datetime.

Which SELECT statement should you use?

To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.

Correct Answer: Please review the part for this answer

SELECT Orders.OrderID FROM Orders WHERE Orders.OrderDate>CONVERT(datetime,@Parameter1)


Question 4:

You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You deploy a new server that has SQL Server 2012 installed. You need to create a table named Sales.OrderDetails on the new server. Sales.OrderDetails must meet the following requirements:

Write the results to a disk.

Contain a new column named LineItemTotal that stores the product of ListPrice and Quantity for each row.

The code must NOT use any object delimiters.

The solution must ensure that LineItemTotal is stored as the last column in the table. Which code segment should you use?

To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.

Correct Answer: Please review the part for this answer

CREATE TABLE Sales.OrderDetails (

ListPrice money not null,

Quantity int not null,

LineItemTotal as (ListPrice * Quantity) PERSISTED)


Question 5:

You have an application named Appl. You have a parameter named @Count that uses the int data type. App1 is configured to pass @Count to a stored procedure.

You need to create a stored procedure named usp_Customers for App1 that returns only the number of rows specified by the @Count parameter.

The solution must NOT use BEGIN, END, or DECLARE statements.

Part of the correct Transact-SQL statement has been provided in the answer area.

Correct Answer: Please review the part for this answer

CREATE PROCEDURE usp_Customers @Count int SELECT TOP(@Count) Customers.LastName FROM Customers ORDER BY Customers.LastName


Question 6:

You have a database named Sales that contains the tables as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You have a database named Sales that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

Complete the Transact-SQL statement

You need to create a query for a report. The query must meet the following requirements:

Return the last name of the customer who placed the order.

Return the most recent order date for each customer.

Group the results by CustomerID.

Order the results by the most recent OrderDate.

Use the database name and table name for any table reference.

Use the first initial of the table as an alias when referencing columns in a table.

The solution must support the ANSI SQL-99 standard and must NOT use object identifiers.

Part of the correct T-SQL statement has been provided in the answer area. Complete the SQL statement.

Correct Answer:

SELECT o.LastName, MAX (o.OrderData) AS MostRecentOrderData FROM Sales.Orders AS o GROUP BY o.CustomerID ORDER BY o.OrderDate DESC


Question 7:

You create a table by using the following Transact-SQL Statement:

You need to return a result set that has a single column named DisplayInformation. The result set must contain the Name value if the Name value is NOT NULL, otherwise the result set must contain the SubName value.

Part of the correct Transact-SQL has been provided in the answer area below. Enter the code in the answer area that resolves the problem and meets the stated goals or requirements. You can add code within the code that has been

provided as well as below it.

Use the Check Syntax button to verify your work. Any syntax or spelling errors will be reported by line and character position.

Correct Answer: SELECT IIF (Name IS NOT NULL, Name, SubName)

Update line 1 to get the following:

SELECT IIF (Name IS NOT NULL, Name, SubName)

FROM Products;

IIF returns one of two values, depending on whether the Boolean expression evaluates to true or false in SQL Server.

Syntax: IIF ( boolean_expression, true_value, false_value )

If the value of expression is NULL, IS NULL returns TRUE; otherwise, it returns FALSE.

If the value of expression is NULL,IS NOT NULL returns FALSE; otherwise, it returns TRUE.

To determine whether an expression is NULL, use IS NULL or IS NOT NULL instead of comparison operators (such as = or !=). Comparison operators return UNKNOWN when either or both arguments are NULL

References:

https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh213574.aspx

https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms188795.aspx


Question 8:

You have a SQL Server database that contains all of the customer data for your company.

You need to extract a random 1,000 row sample from a table Customers.

Part of the correct Transact-SQL has been provided in the answer area below. Enter the code in the answer area that resolves the problem and meets the stated goals or requirements. You can add code within the code that has been

provided as well as below it.

Use the Check Syntax button to verify your work. Any syntax or spelling errors will be reported by line and character position.

Correct Answer: TABLESAMPLE SYSTEM (1000 ROWS)

Update line 3 to get the following:

SELECT *

FROM Customers

TABLESAMPLE SYSTEM (1000 ROWS)

The TABLESAMPLE clause limits the number of rows returned from a table in the FROM clause to a sample number orPERCENT of rows.

Syntax: TABLESAMPLE [SYSTEM] (sample_number [ PERCENT | ROWS ] )

References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms189108(v=sql.105).aspx


Question 9:

You have a view that was created by using the following code:

You need to create an inline table-valued function named Sales.fn_OrdersByTerritory that returns sales information from a specified SalesTerritoryID. Sales.fn_OrdersByTerritory must meet the following requirements:

Use one-part names to reference columns.

Return all the columns in the OrdersByTerritory View. The function should return the same columns as they exist in the OrdersByTerritory view and in the same order.

Declare the input variable as @T.

Use SalesTerritoryID as an integer.

Part of the correct T-SQL statement has been provided in the answer area. Provide the complete code.

Key Words

Correct Answer:

CREATE FUNCTION Sales.fn_OrdersByTerritory (@T integer) RETURNS TABLE AS RETURN (SELECT OrderID, OrderDate, SalesTerritoryID, TotalDue FROM Sales.OrdersByTerritory WHERE SalesTerritoryID = @T)


Question 10:

You have a database that contains the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You need to create a view named uv_CustomerFullName to meet the following requirements:

The code must NOT include object delimiters.

The view must be created in the Sales schema.

Columns must only be referenced by using one-part names.

The view must return the first name and the last name of all customers.

The view must prevent the underlying structure of the customer table from being changed.

The view must be able to resolve all referenced objects, regardless of the user\’s default schema.

Which code segment should you use?

To answer, type the correct code in the answer area.

Correct Answer: Please review the part for this answer

CREATE VIEW Sales.uv_CustomerFullName WITH SCHEMABINDING AS SELECT FirstName, LastName FROM Sales.Customers


Question 11:

You need to create a view named uv_CustomerFullNames. The view must prevent the underlying structure of the customer table from being changed. Part of the correct T-SQL statement has been provided in the answer area. Provide the complete code.

Correct Answer: Please review the part for this answer

CREATE VIEW sales.uv_CustomerFullNames WITH SCHEMABINDING AS SELECT FirstName, LastName FROM Sales.Customers


Question 12:

You have a view that was created by using the following code:

You need to create an inline table-valued function named Sales.fn_OrdersByTerritory. Sales.fn_OrdersByTerritory must meet the following requirements:

Use one-part names to reference columns.

Return the columns in the same order as the order used in OrdersByTerritoryView.

Part of the correct T-SQL statement has been provided in the answer area. Provide the complete code.

Correct Answer: Please review the part for this answer

CREATE FUNCTION Sales.fn_OrdersByTerritory (@T int) RETURNS TABLE AS RETURN ( SELECT OrderID, OrderDate, SalesTerritoryID, TotalDue FROM Sales.OrdersByTerritory WHERE [email protected] )


Question 13:

You develop an SQL Server database. The database contains a table that is defined by the following T-SQL statements:

The table contains duplicate records based on the combination of values in the surName, givenName, and dateOfBirth fields.

You need to remove the duplicate records.

How should you complete the relevant Transact-SQL statements? To answer, drag the appropriate code segment or segments to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

let us write a query which will delete all duplicate data in one shot. We will use a CTE (Common Table Expression) for this purpose. We will read in future posts what a CTE is and why it is used. On a lighter note, CTE\’s can be imagined as equivalent to temporary result sets that can be used only in an underlying SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE or CREATE VIEW statement. ;WITH CTE AS ( SELECT Name , City , [State] , ROW_NUMBER() OVER(PARTITION BY Name, City, [State] ORDER BY [Name]) AS Rnum FROM Persons ) DELETE FROM CTE WHERE Rnum 1 In the code by saying WHERE Rnum 1, we are asking SQL Server to keep all the records with Rank 1, which are not duplicates, and delete any other record. After executing this query in SQL Server Management Studio, you will end up with no duplicates in your table. To confirm that just run a simple query against your table.


Question 14:

You want to add a new GUID column named BookGUID to a table named dbo.Book that already contains data.

BookGUID will have a constraint to ensure that it always has a value when new rows are inserted into dbo.Book.

You need to ensure that the new column is assigned a GUID for existing rows.

Which four Transact-SQL statements should you use? (To answer, move the appropriate SQL statements from the list of statements to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Actually, in the real world, you don\’t have to use WITH VALUES at the end of the statement and it works just as well. But because the question specifically states which FOUR TSQL statements to use, we have to include it.


Question 15:

You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. You use an OrderDetail table that has the following definition:

You need to create a non-clustered index on the SalesOrderID column in the OrderDetail table to include only rows that contain a value in the SpecialOfferID column. Which four Transact-SQL statements should you use? (To answer, move the appropriate statements from the list of statements to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


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Question 1:

The application of the Brokered Authentication pattern is best suited for a scenario whereby a service consumer does not need to re-authenticate itself with multiple services.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

The manager of an IT department decides to split up an existing enterprise service inventory into two domain service inventories. The public key used previously in the enterprise service inventory can continue to be used in one of the domain service inventories.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

A task service needs to access three entity services as part of a service composition. The task service needs to authenticate itself every time it accesses one of the three entity services. Because the task service must authenticate itself three times to complete its task, the current service composition design is considered inefficient.

How can it be improved while continuing to fulfill the authentication requirements?

A. Increase the network bandwidth between the task service and the entity services.

B. Use a single sign-on mechanism.

C. Remove the authentication requirements within the service composition, thereby reducing the message size and making communication faster.

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Which of the following security mechanisms can provide centralized security measures for all services within a service inventory?

A. public key infrastructure

B. single sign-on

C. hashed certificate repository

D. identity management system

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 5:

The services within a domain service inventory provide access to confidential data retrieved from a shared database. These services need to be accessible from outside the domain service inventory. Which of the following design options will preserve the confidentiality of the data when the services are accessed from outside the service inventory?

A. The Direct Authentication pattern is applied to the database used by the services that need to be externally accessed.

B. A dedicated database is created to store the confidential data. This database will only be used by the services that need to be externally accessed.

C. The messages exchanged by the services are designed to include security tokens.

D. None of above

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

A hashing function always returns for the same input data.

A. a different transformation

B. a different digest

C. the same transformation

D. the same digest

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

When working with SAML, a Security Token Service (STS) and a Service Provider refer to the same service.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

When establishing a single sign-on mechanism, the application of the Standardized Service Contract principle requires the use of SAML because it is an industry standard understood by multiple service consumers.

A. True

B. False B

Correct Answer:


Question 9:

Both the Brokered Authentication pattern and the Direct Authentication pattern advocate the use of a central identity store.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

As part of Service Composition A, a service consumer needs to authenticate itself to four different services. The Direct Authentication pattern was applied to each of these four services, all of which share the same identity store. This identity store is also shared by a number of additional services. As a result of increased usage, the identity store has become a performance bottleneck. The resulting performance degradation is impacting Service Composition A to the extent that it is causing problems. The security architecture for Service Composition A needs to be improved in order to avoid further performance degradation. However, any changes to the service composition architecture cannot break any dependencies with the existing service consumer.

Which of the following approaches fulfills these requirements?

A. Apply the Brokered Authentication pattern so that SAML tokens can be issued by a centralized authentication broker. This way, the existing service consumer does not need to re-authenticate itself over and over again

B. Introduce dedicated identity stores so that each service in the service composition has its own copy of the identity information. This way, dependencies with the existingservice consumer are not broken

C. Use a service agent between the four services and the centralized identity store in order to centralize the task of authentication. This way, load on the identity store is decreased and dependencies with the existingservice consumer are not broken

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Service A requires certificates signed by a trusted certificate authority. The certificate authority publishes a Certificate Revocation List (CRL) on a frequent basis. As a result, some of the service consumers that were previously authorized to access Service A will not be able to after new CRLs are issued.

How can this security requirement be enforced?

A. A human security administrator needs to check the validity of each certificate with the certificate authority whenever Service A is accessed.

B. An intermediary can check against the CRL to determine whether a certificate provided by a service consumer is still valid.

C. Using certificates in such a scenario is not a valid option.

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Using transport-layer security, an active intermediary that takes possession of a message can compromise:

A. message confidentiality

B. message confidentiality and message integrity

C. message integrity

D. None of the above.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

In order to express the order in which a message is signed and encrypted, the industry standard can be used.

A. Decryption Transform for XML-Signature

B. XSL Transformations for XML

C. XML-Ordering

D. None of the above.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

A service that issues a SAML assertion is called a Policy Decision Point (PDP) while a service that accepts a SAML assertion is called a SAML authority.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Service A is an agnostic service that currently uses message-layer security implemented by symmetric encryption. However, because Service A has recently been successfully attacked, it has been decided that asymmetric encryption needs to be used instead. The nature of the messages exchanged by Service A requires that only some parts of the message data need to be encrypted. Although it is agreed that asymmetric encryption is required, architects are concerned that it will adversely affect the service\’s runtime performance.

Which of the following approaches will fulfill these security requirements with the least amount of performance degradation?

A. An authentication broker needs to be introduced with a dedicated identity store.

B. Only the required parts of the message need to be encrypted instead of encrypting the entire message.

C. The Direct Authentication pattern needs to be applied so that no intermediary is involved between Service A and its service consumers.

D. Certificates need to be issued by a registered certificate authority.

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

You are developing a hands-on workshop to introduce Docker for Windows to attendees.

You need to ensure that workshop attendees can install Docker on their devices.

Which two prerequisite components should attendees install on the devices? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Microsoft Hardware-Assisted Virtualization Detection Tool

B. Kitematic

C. BIOS-enabled virtualization

D. VirtualBox

E. Windows 10 64-bit Professional

Correct Answer: CE

C: Make sure your Windows system supports Hardware Virtualization Technology and that virtualization is enabled. Ensure that hardware virtualization support is turned on in the BIOS settings. For example:

E: To run Docker, your machine must have a 64-bit operating system running Windows 7 or higher.

References:

https://docs.docker.com/toolbox/toolbox_install_windows/

https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/canitpro/2015/09/08/step-by-step-enabling-hyper-v-for-use-on- windows-10/


Question 2:

You are implementing a machine learning model to predict stock prices.

The model uses a PostgreSQL database and requires GPU processing.

You need to create a virtual machine that is pre-configured with the required tools.

What should you do?

A. Create a Data Science Virtual Machine (DSVM) Windows edition.

B. Create a Geo Al Data Science Virtual Machine (Geo-DSVM) Windows edition.

C. Create a Deep Learning Virtual Machine (DLVM) Linux edition.

D. Create a Deep Learning Virtual Machine (DLVM) Windows edition.

Correct Answer: A

In the DSVM, your training models can use deep learning algorithms on hardware that\’s based on graphics processing units (GPUs).

PostgreSQL is available for the following operating systems: Linux (all recent distributions), 64-bit installers available for macOS (OS X) version 10.6 and newer ?Windows (with installers available for 64-bit version; tested on latest versions

and back to Windows 2012 R2.

Incorrect Answers:

B: The Azure Geo AI Data Science VM (Geo-DSVM) delivers geospatial analytics capabilities from Microsoft\’s Data Science VM. Specifically, this VM extends the AI and data science toolkits in the Data Science VM by adding ESRI\’s market-leading ArcGIS Pro Geographic Information System.

C, D: DLVM is a template on top of DSVM image. In terms of the packages, GPU drivers etc are all there in the DSVM image. Mostly it is for convenience during creation where we only allow DLVM to be created on GPU VM instances on Azure.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/data-science-virtual-machine/overview


Question 3:

You are developing deep learning models to analyze semi-structured, unstructured, and structured data types. You have the following data available for model building:

1.

Video recordings of sporting events

2.

Transcripts of radio commentary about events

3.

Logs from related social media feeds captured during sporting events

You need to select an environment for creating the model. Which environment should you use?

A. Azure Cognitive Services

B. Azure Data Lake Analytics

C. Azure HDInsight with Spark MLib

D. Azure Machine Learning Studio

Correct Answer: A

Azure Cognitive Services expand on Microsoft\’s evolving portfolio of machine learning APIs and enable developers to easily add cognitive features ?such as emotion and video detection; facial, speech, and vision recognition; and speech and language understanding ?into their applications. The goal of Azure Cognitive Services is to help developers create applications that can see, hear, speak, understand, and even begin to reason. The catalog of services within Azure Cognitive Services can be categorized into five main pillars – Vision, Speech, Language, Search, and Knowledge.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cognitive-services/welcome


Question 4:

You must store data in Azure Blob Storage to support Azure Machine Learning.

You need to transfer the data into Azure Blob Storage.

What are three possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Bulk Insert SQL Query

B. AzCopy

C. Python script

D. Azure Storage Explorer

E. Bulk Copy Program (BCP)

Correct Answer: BCD

You can move data to and from Azure Blob storage using different technologies:

1.

Azure Storage-Explorer

2.

AzCopy

3.

Python

4.

SSIS

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/team-data-science-process/move-azure-blob


Question 5:

You are moving a large dataset from Azure Machine Learning Studio to a Weka environment.

You need to format the data for the Weka environment.

Which module should you use?

A. Convert to CSV

B. Convert to Dataset

C. Convert to ARFF

D. Convert to SVMLight

Correct Answer: C

Use the Convert to ARFF module in Azure Machine Learning Studio, to convert datasets and results in Azure Machine Learning to the attribute-relation file format used by the Weka toolset. This format is known as ARFF.

The ARFF data specification for Weka supports multiple machine learning tasks, including data preprocessing, classification, and feature selection. In this format, data is organized by entites and their attributes, and is contained in a single text file.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/convert-to-arff


Question 6:

You plan to use a Deep Learning Virtual Machine (DLVM) to train deep learning models using Compute Unified Device Architecture (CUDA) computations.

You need to configure the DLVM to support CUDA. What should you implement?

A. Solid State Drives (SSD)

B. Computer Processing Unit (CPU) speed increase by using overclocking

C. Graphic Processing Unit (GPU)

D. High Random Access Memory (RAM) configuration

E. Intel Software Guard Extensions (Intel SGX) technology

Correct Answer: C

A Deep Learning Virtual Machine is a pre-configured environment for deep learning using GPU instances.

References: https://azuremarketplace.microsoft.com/en-au/marketplace/apps/microsoft-ads.dsvm-deep-learning


Question 7:

You plan to use a Data Science Virtual Machine (DSVM) with the open source deep learning frameworks Caffe2 and PyTorch.

You need to select a pre-configured DSVM to support the frameworks.

What should you create?

A. Data Science Virtual Machine for Windows 2012

B. Data Science Virtual Machine for Linux (CentOS)

C. Geo AI Data Science Virtual Machine with ArcGIS

D. Data Science Virtual Machine for Windows 2016

E. Data Science Virtual Machine for Linux (Ubuntu)

Correct Answer: E

Caffe2 and PyTorch is supported by Data Science Virtual Machine for Linux. Microsoft offers Linux editions of the DSVM on Ubuntu 16.04 LTS and CentOS 7.4. Only the DSVM on Ubuntu is preconfigured for Caffe2 and PyTorch. Incorrect Answers:

D: Caffe2 and PytOCH are only supported in the Data Science Virtual Machine for Linux.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/data-science-virtual-machine/overview


Question 8:

You are developing a data science workspace that uses an Azure Machine Learning service.

You need to select a compute target to deploy the workspace.

What should you use?

A. Azure Data Lake Analytics

B. Azure Databricks

C. Azure Container Service

D. Apache Spark for HDInsight

Correct Answer: C

Azure Container Instances can be used as compute target for testing or development. Use for low-scale CPU-based workloads that require less than 48 GB of RAM.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/service/how-to-deploy-and-where


Question 9:

You are solving a classification task.

The dataset is imbalanced.

You need to select an Azure Machine Learning Studio module to improve the classification accuracy.

Which module should you use?

A. Permutation Feature Importance

B. Filter Based Feature Selection

C. Fisher Linear Discriminant Analysis

D. Synthetic Minority Oversampling Technique (SMOTE)

Correct Answer: D

Use the SMOTE module in Azure Machine Learning Studio (classic) to increase the number of underepresented cases in a dataset used for machine learning. SMOTE is a better way of increasing the number of rare cases than simply duplicating existing cases.

You connect the SMOTE module to a dataset that is imbalanced. There are many reasons why a dataset might be imbalanced: the category you are targeting might be very rare in the population, or the data might simply be difficult to collect. Typically, you use SMOTE when the class you want to analyze is under- represented.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/smote


Question 10:

You are analyzing a dataset containing historical data from a local taxi company. You are developing a regression model.

You must predict the fare of a taxi trip.

You need to select performance metrics to correctly evaluate the regression model.

Which two metrics can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution?

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. a Root Mean Square Error value that is low

B. an R-Squared value close to 0

C. an F1 score that is low

D. an R-Squared value close to 1

E. an F1 score that is high

F. a Root Mean Square Error value that is high

Correct Answer: AD

RMSE and R2 are both metrics for regression models.

A: Root mean squared error (RMSE) creates a single value that summarizes the error in the model. By squaring the difference, the metric disregards the difference between over-prediction and under-prediction.

D: Coefficient of determination, often referred to as R2, represents the predictive power of the model as a value between 0 and 1. Zero means the model is random (explains nothing); 1 means there is a perfect fit. However, caution should be

used in interpreting R2 values, as low values can be entirely normal and high values can be suspect.

Incorrect Answers:

C, E: F-score is used for classification models, not for regression models.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/evaluate-model


Question 11:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while

others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You are using Azure Machine Learning to run an experiment that trains a classification model.

You want to use Hyperdrive to find parameters that optimize the AUC metric for the model. You configure a HyperDriveConfig for the experiment by running the following code:

You plan to use this configuration to run a script that trains a random forest model and then tests it with validation data. The label values for the validation data are stored in a variable named y_test variable, and the predicted probabilities from

the model are stored in a variable named y_predicted.

You need to add logging to the script to allow Hyperdrive to optimize hyperparameters for the AUC metric.

Solution: Run the following code:

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: A

Python printing/logging example: logging.info(message)

Destination: Driver logs, Azure Machine Learning designer

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/how-to-debug-pipelines


Question 12:

A set of CSV files contains sales records. All the CSV files have the same data schema.

Each CSV file contains the sales record for a particular month and has the filename sales.csv. Each file in stored in a folder that indicates the month and year when the data was recorded. The folders are in an Azure blob container for which a datastore has been defined in an Azure Machine Learning workspace. The folders are organized in a parent folder named sales to create the following hierarchical structure:

At the end of each month, a new folder with that month\’s sales file is added to the sales folder.

You plan to use the sales data to train a machine learning model based on the following requirements:

1.

You must define a dataset that loads all of the sales data to date into a structure that can be easily converted to a dataframe.

2.

You must be able to create experiments that use only data that was created before a specific previous month, ignoring any data that was added after that month.

3.

You must register the minimum number of datasets possible.

You need to register the sales data as a dataset in Azure Machine Learning service workspace.

What should you do?

A. Create a tabular dataset that references the datastore and explicitly specifies each \’sales/mm-yyyy/ sales.csv\’ file every month. Register the dataset with the name sales_dataset each month, replacing the existing dataset and specifying a tag named month indicating the month and year it was registered. Use this dataset for all experiments.

B. Create a tabular dataset that references the datastore and specifies the path \’sales/*/sales.csv\’, register the dataset with the name sales_dataset and a tag named month indicating the month and year it was registered, and use this dataset for all experiments.

C. Create a new tabular dataset that references the datastore and explicitly specifies each \’sales/mm- yyyy/sales.csv\’ file every month. Register the dataset with the name sales_dataset_MM-YYYY each month with appropriate MM and YYYY values for the month and year. Use the appropriate month- specific dataset for experiments.

D. Create a tabular dataset that references the datastore and explicitly specifies each \’sales/mm-yyyy/ sales.csv\’ file. Register the dataset with the name sales_dataset each month as a new version and with a tag named month indicating the month and year it was registered. Use this dataset for all experiments, identifying the version to be used based on the month tag as necessary.

Correct Answer: B

Specify the path.

Example:

The following code gets the workspace existing workspace and the desired datastore by name. And then passes the datastore and file locations to the path parameter to create a new TabularDataset, weather_ds.

from azureml.core import Workspace, Datastore, Dataset

datastore_name = \’your datastore name\’

# get existing workspace

workspace = Workspace.from_config()

# retrieve an existing datastore in the workspace by name datastore = Datastore.get(workspace, datastore_name)

# create a TabularDataset from 3 file paths in datastore datastore_paths = [(datastore, \’weather/2018/11.csv\’),

(datastore, \’weather/2018/12.csv\’),

(datastore, \’weather/2019/*.csv\’)]

weather_ds = Dataset.Tabular.from_delimited_files(path=datastore_paths)


Question 13:

You use the following code to run a script as an experiment in Azure Machine Learning:

You must identify the output files that are generated by the experiment run.

You need to add code to retrieve the output file names.

Which code segment should you add to the script?

A. files = run.get_properties()

B. files= run.get_file_names()

C. files = run.get_details_with_logs()

D. files = run.get_metrics()

E. files = run.get_details()

Correct Answer: B

You can list all of the files that are associated with this run record by called run.get_file_names()

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/how-to-track-experiments


Question 14:

You create a deep learning model for image recognition on Azure Machine Learning service using GPU- based training.

You must deploy the model to a context that allows for real-time GPU-based inferencing.

You need to configure compute resources for model inferencing.

Which compute type should you use?

A. Azure Container Instance

B. Azure Kubernetes Service

C. Field Programmable Gate Array

D. Machine Learning Compute

Correct Answer: B

You can use Azure Machine Learning to deploy a GPU-enabled model as a web service. Deploying a model on Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) is one option. The AKS cluster provides a GPU resource that is used by the model for inference.

Inference, or model scoring, is the phase where the deployed model is used to make predictions. Using GPUs instead of CPUs offers performance advantages on highly parallelizable computation.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/how-to-deploy-inferencing-gpus


Question 15:

You create a batch inference pipeline by using the Azure ML SDK. You run the pipeline by using the following code:

from azureml.pipeline.core import Pipeline

from azureml.core.experiment import Experiment

pipeline = Pipeline(workspace=ws, steps=[parallelrun_step]) pipeline_run = Experiment(ws, \’batch_pipeline\’).submit(pipeline)

You need to monitor the progress of the pipeline execution.

What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

E. Option E

Correct Answer: DE

A batch inference job can take a long time to finish. This example monitors progress by using a Jupyter widget. You can also manage the job\’s progress by using:

1.

Azure Machine Learning Studio.

2.

Console output from the PipelineRun object.

from azureml.widgets import RunDetails RunDetails(pipeline_run).show() pipeline_run.wait_for_completion(show_output=True) Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/how-to-use-parallel-run-step#monitor-the- parallel-run-job


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Question 1:

Due to a hardware failure, it appears that there may be some corruption in database DB_1 as DB2 is reporting a “bad page”. DB2DART is performed for the entire database and it appears that several bad pages were detected in table space TBSP_1. What command can be used to recover the database and repair the corruption in table space TBSP_1?

A. RESTART DATABASE

B. RECOVER DATABASE

C. RESTORE TABLESPACE

D. ROLLFORWARD DATABASE

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which command can be used to restore a corrupted database using only the recovery history file?

A. RESTART DATABASE

B. RECOVER DATABASE

C. RESTORE DATABASE

D. ROLLFORWARD DATABASE

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

What is the correct procedure for recovering a dropped table when DROPPED TABLE RECOVERY has been enabled and the database must remain online?

A. Run the RECOVER DATABASE command with the RECOVER DROPPED TABLE option to restore the database and recover the droppedtable.

B. Run the RECOVER DATABASE command with the RECOVER DROPPED TABLE option to restore the appropriate table space and recover thedropped table.

C. Restore the database from a backup image that was taken before the table was dropped; run the ROLLFORWARD DATABASE command withthe RECOVER DROPPED TABLE option to restore the database and recover the dropped table.

D. Restore the appropriate table space from a backup image that was taken before the table was dropped; run the ROLLFORWARD DATABASEcommand with the RECOVER DROPPED TABLE option to restore the appropriate table space and recover the dropped table.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Which statement is correct when describing trusted contexts?

A. A trusted context defines a trust relationship for a connection between the database and an external entity.

B. A trusted context promotes the authorization level of the connection initiator and grants them DBADM authority.

C. A trusted context defines a trust relationship between a user and a table allowing that user additional capabilities.

D. A trusted context gives the database connection the ability to bypass auditing since authentication has already occurred.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which statement is correct for a user who holds SECADM authority?

A. A user who holds SECADM authority can only grant and revoke database object privileges.

B. A user who holds SECADM authority can grant and revoke all database level authorities and database object privileges.

C. A user who holds SECADM authority can only grant and revoke DBADM and SECADM database level authorities.

D. A user who holds SECADM authority can only grant and revoke label based access control (LBAC) security labels.

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

What can be used to provide input to the Design Advisor?

A. An XML file.

B. A query workload file.

C. The database configuration file.

D. The database manager configuration file.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

You have just converted an existing database to an automatic storage database. What can you use to move data from an existing DMS table space to an automatic storage table space, while the data remains online and available for access?

A. The db2move command

B. The db2relocatedb command

C. The ADMIN_MOVE_TABLE procedure

D. The ADMIN_MOVE_TABLE_UTIL procedure

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

An existing non-automatic storage database named MYDB has been successfully converted to an automatic storage database. What must be done to convert any existing DMS table spaces to automatic storage table spaces?

A. Execute the statement ALTER DATABASE mydb CONVERT TO AUTOMATIC STORAGE IMMEDIATE.

B. Execute the statement ALTER DATABASE mydb CONVERT TABLESPACES TO AUTOMATIC STORAGE.

C. Execute the ALTER TABLESPACE statement with the MANAGED BY STOGROUP clause specified for each DMS table space that is to beconverted.

D. Execute the ALTER TABLESPACE statement with the MANAGED BY AUTOMATIC STORAGE clause specified for each DMS table space that isto be converted.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Given the following statement:

How many constraints are present in the DEPARTMENT table?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Which system command can be used to locate and return only ADM4500W messages from the DB2 diagnostics log file?

A. db2pd

B. db2diag

C. db2trace

D. db2fmtdiag

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which registry variable is used to enable transparent Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)?

A. DB2LDAP

B. DB2AUTH

C. CLNT_PW_PLUGIN

D. SRVCON_PW_PLUGIN

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Which command is used to import connectivity configuration information from a file known as a configuration profile?

A. db2ca

B. db2cfexp

C. db2cfimp

D. db2cfgimp

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

What is the FLUSH PACKAGE CACHE statement used for?

A. It saves dynamic SQL stored in the package cache to an external file.

B. To remove all cached static SQL statements from the package cache.

C. To remove all cached dynamic SQL statements from the package cache.

D. It causes all SQL statements in the package cache that are currently in use to be recompiled.

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

What are two types of check options that can be used to create views? (Choose two.)

A. Local

B. Client

C. Server

D. Remote

E. Cascaded

Correct Answer: AE