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Free Download the Most Update Geekcert Salesforce PDII Brain Dumps

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Question 1:

Universal Containers wants to use a Customer Community with Customer Community Plus licenses so their customers can track how many of containers they are renting and when they are due back. Many of their customers are global companies with complex Account hierarchies, representing various departments within the same organization. One of the requirements is that certain community users within the same Account hierarchy be able to see several departments\’ containers, based on a junction object that relates the Contact to the various Account records that represent the departments. Which solution solves these requirements?

A. A Custom Report Type and a report Lightning Component on the Community Home Page

B. An Apex Trigger that creates Apex Managed Sharing records based on the junction object\’s relationships

C. A Custom List View on the junction object with filters that will show the proper records based on owner

D. A Visualforce page that uses a Custom Controller that specifies without sharing to expose the records

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Universal Containers wants to use an external Web Service provided by a third-party vendor to validate that shipping and billing addresses are correct. The current vendor uses basic password authentication, but Universal Containers might switch to a different vendor who uses OAuth. What would allow Universal Containers to switch vendors without updating the code to handle authentication?

A. Custom Setting (List)

B. Custom Metadata

C. Named Credential

D. Dynamic Endpoint

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

A company has a Lightning Page with many Lightning Components, some that cache reference data

It is reported that the page does not always show the most current reference data. What can a developer use to analyze and diagnose the problem in the Lightning Page?

A. Salesforce Lightning Inspector Storage Tab

B. Salesforce Lightning Inspector Actions Tab

C. Salesforce Lightning Inspector Event Log Tab

D. Salesforce Lightning Inspector Transactions Tab

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

A company has code to update a Request and Request Lines and make a callout to their external ERP system\’s REST endpoint with the updated records.

The CalloutUtil. makeRestCallout fails with a \’You have uncommitted work pending. Please commit or rollback before calling out\’ error. What should be done to address the problem?

A. Change the CalloutUtil.makeRestCallout to an @InvocableMethod method.

B. Remove the Database.setSavepoint and Database.rollback.

C. Move the CalloutUtil.makeRestCallout method call below the catch block.

D. Change the CalloutUtil.makeRestCallout to an @future method

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

A Visualforce page contains an industry select list and displays a table of Accounts that have a matching value in their Industry field.

When a user changes the value in the industry select list, the table of Accounts should be automatically

updated to show the Accounts associated with the selected industry.

What is the optimal way to implement this?

A. Add an within the .

B. Add an within the .

C. Add an within the .

D. Add an within the .

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

The test method above calls a web service that updates an external system with Account information and sets the Account\’s Integration_Updated__c checkbox to True when it completes. The test fails to execute and exits with an error: “Methods defined as TestMethod do not support Web service callouts. ”

What is the optimal way to fix this?

A. Add if (!Test.isRunningTest()) around CalloutUtil.sendAccountUpdate.

B. Add Test.startTest() before and Test.stopTest() after CalloutUtil.sendAccountUpdate.

C. Add Test.startTest() before and Test.setMock and Test.stopTest() after CalloutUtil.sendAccountUpdate.

D. Add Test.startTest() and Test.setMock before and Test.stopTest() after CalloutUtil.sendAccountUpdate.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

A developer created and tested a Visualforce page in their developer sandbox, but now receives reports that users are encountering ViewState errors when using it in Production. What should the developer ensure to correct these errors?

A. Ensure queries do not exceed governor limits.

B. Ensure properties are marked as Transient.

C. Ensure properties are marked as private.

D. Ensure profiles have access to the Visualforce page.

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

{!v.account.Name}

{!v.account.AccountNumber}

{!v.account.Industry}

Refer to the component code above. The information displays as expected (in three rows) on a mobile device. However, the information is not displaying as desired (in a single row) on a desktop or tablet.

Which option has the correct component changes to display correctly on desktops and tablets?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

A company\’s support process dictates that any time a Case is closed with a Status of \’Could not fix,\’ an Engineering Review custom object record should be created and populated with information from the Case, the Contact, and any of the Products associated with the Case. What is the correct way to automate this using an Apex trigger?

A. An after upsert trigger that creates the Engineering Review record and inserts it

B. A before update trigger that creates the Engineering Review record and inserts it

C. An after update trigger that creates the Engineering Review record and inserts it

D. A before upsert trigger that creates the Engineering Review record and inserts it

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

A company processes Orders within their Salesforce instance. When an Order\’s status changes to \’Paid\’ it must notify the company\’s order management system (OMS). The OMS exposes SOAP web service endpoints to listen for when to retrieve the data from Salesforce. What is the optimal method to implement this?

A. Create an Apex trigger and make a callout to the OMS from the trigger.

B. Generate the Partner WSDL and use it to make a callout to the OMS.

C. Create an Outbound Message that contains the session ID and send it to the OMS.

D. Generate the Enterprise WSDL and use it to make a callout to the OMS.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Line 1 public class AttributeTypes Line 2 { Line 3 private final String[] arrayItems; Line 4 Line 5 @AuraEnabled Line 6 public List getStringArray() { Line 7 Strings arrayItems = new String* , \’red\’, \’green\’, \’blue\’ -; Line 8 return arrayItems; Line 9 } Line 10 } Consider the Apex controller above that is called from a Lightning Aura Component. What is wrong with it?

A. Line 1: class must be global

B. Lines 1 and 6: class and method must be global

C. Line 6: method must be static

D. Line 8: method must first serialize the list to JSON before returning

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

An Apex class does not achieve expected code coverage. The testSetup method explicitly calls a method in the Apex class. How can the developer generate the code coverage?

A. Add @testVisible to the method in the class the developer is testing.

B. Use system.assert() in testSetup to verify the values are being returned.

C. Call the Apex class method from a testMethod instead of the testSetup method.

D. Verify the user has permissions passing a user into System.runAs().

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

A developer is trying to decide between creating a Visualforce component or a Lightning component for a custom screen. Which functionality consideration impacts the final decision?

A. Does the screen need to be accessible from the Lightning Experience UI?

B. Will the screen make use of a JavaScript framework?

C. Does the screen need to be rendered as a PDF?

D. Will the screen be accessed via a mobile app?

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

A Developer wishes to improve runtime performance of Apex calls by caching results on the client. What is the best way to implement this?

A. Decorate the server-side method with @AuraEnabled(cacheable=true).

B. Set a cookie in the browser for use upon return to the page.

C. Decorate the server-side method with @AuraEnabled(storable=true).

D. Call the setStorable() method on the action in the JavaScript client-side code.

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

A developer is asked to update data in an org based on new business rules. The new rules state that Accounts with the type set to \’Customer\’ should have a status of \’Active,\’ and Accounts with the type set to \’Prospect\’ should have a status of \’Pending.\’ No other changes to data should be made. Which code block will accurately meet the business requirements?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

A methodology that can be used by managers and internal auditors to assess the adequacy of an organization\’s risk management and control processes is called:

A. Control self-assessment

B. Control certifications

C. Managerial control

D. Risk control

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Which of the following is Correct?

A. Internal auditing is an independent, objective assurance and consulting activity designed to add value and improve an organization\’s operations.

B. Take guidelines to analyst conflicts of internal auditing.

C. Required orientation and continuing education regarding audits.

D. Assets are safeguards for internal audits.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

When internal auditors establishes trust and thus provides the basis for reliance on their judgment, this refers to:

A. Veracity

B. Authenticity

C. Integrity

D. Accuracy

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Which of the following is NOT the rule of integrity?

A. Perform duty with honesty and responsibility.

B. Observe law and make disclosures expected by law.

C. Knowingly engage in acts that are discreditable to the organization.

D. Respect to and contribute to the legitimate objectives of the organization.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

The entire objectives-risks-controls infrastructures of an organization are subject to greater monitoring and continuous improvements due to:

A. Accountability for control

B. Measuring methodology

C. Evaluation methodology

D. Self-assessment methodology

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Which of the following is Correct?

A. Internal audit can focus on validating the evaluation conclusions produced by controlself assessment.

B. controlling can focus on validating the evaluation conclusions produced by controlself assessment.

C. Internal audit can focus on resource and budgetary produced by control-self assessment.

D. Internal audit can focus on better risk assessment produced by control-self assessment.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Operations control is related to the:

A. Effective and efficiency use of the entity\’s cost.

B. Effective and efficiency use of the entity\’s space.

C. Effective and efficiency use of the entity\’s time.

D. Effective and efficiency use of the entity\’s resources.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

The policy statement that defines the objectives for and commitment to risk management within the organization\’s strategic and operational context is called:

A. Risk management

B. Enterprise risk management

C. Strategic risk management

D. Operational risk management

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Accurate self-assessment is a realistic evaluation of your strengths and limitations.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

The ability to take charge and inspire with a compelling vision is known as:

A. Directed vision

B. Visionary leadership

C. Visionary management

D. Intended vision

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which of the following is Correct?

A. Workshops involve gathering information from individuals representing different levels in the press.

B. Workshops involve gathering information from work teams representing different levels in the business unit or function.

C. Workshops involve gathering information from individuals representing similar levels in the business unit or function.

D. Workshops involve gathering information from work teams representing similar levels in the lobby.

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

In Facilitated team workshops, which is NOT the facilitated team format?

A. Objective-based format

B. Risk-based format

C. Configuration-based format

D. process-cased format

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

The aim of the workshop is to evaluate, update, validate, improve and streamline the whole process and its component activities in:

A. Procedure-based format

B. Process-based format

C. Activity-based format

D. Process-based format

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

__________ can be used in control self-assessment workshops in conjunction with other interactive programs such as OptionFinder to allow participants to anonymously express their opinions on the information presented.

A. Presentation devices

B. Seminar software

C. Occupational software

D. Presentation software

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Organizations with centralized structures with a strict chain of command and typically perform highly repetitive tasks grouped within their functional areas, have:

A. Machine bureaucracy

B. Performance bureaucracy

C. Functional bureaucracy

D. Organizational bureaucracy

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

What is a legally secure contract for NSN and a Customer?

A. If NSN has a long-running relationship with the customer, so a “gentlemen\’s” or “verbal” agreement is enough, especially in some countries.

B. A PO with the payment terms defined is sufficient, provided NSN had contractual relationship with the customer in the past.

C. Terms and conditions documenting the commitments of both parties needs to be written and signed.

D. A detailed customer Purchase Order with a description of the Services Ordered is sufficient.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

What is CaPM\’s PRIMARY responsibility in the tendering process?

A. To help the Account Manager to prepare a Customer Care Contract.

B. To support the Account Manager to negotiate the Care Contract with the Customer.

C. To consult the Service Engagement Manager to ensure availability of price options for Care Services.

D. To act as the CT contact to the Care organisation and to support the CT in all tendering activities where Care services are being considered.

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

When does the Care phase start?

A. When the network, sub-network or deliverables get Customer final acceptance.

B. When the project phase is completed.

C. When the Account Manager receives the final payment from the Customer.

D. When the Care Plan has been accepted by the Customer.

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Who should NOT participate in a Care Services tender?

A. Service Product Manager.

B. Cost Manager.

C. Care Program Manager.

D. RandD Engineer.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

A customer pays for a 5-year warranty contract. What contract type is used in CDB/SAP?

A. Care Agreement.

B. Warranty Standard contract.

C. Warranty Extended contract.

D. 1st Warranty Standard and the next 4 as Warranty Extended contract.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A customer has a free 3-year warranty contract. What contract type is used in CDB/SAP?

A. Care Agreement.

B. Warranty Standard contract.

C. Warranty Extended contract.

D. 1st Warranty Standard and Warranty Extended for the next 2 years.

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

What is the next step after receiving a quotation for renewal of services from 3rd party suppliers?

A. Care Program Manager should contact the 3rd Party Service Manager to check the renewal options in the existing Frame or Local Agreement.

B. Care Program Manager should ask Logistics Coordinator to raise a Purchase Order.

C. Care Program Manager should contact the Supplier to discuss further discounts.

D. Care Program Manager should contact the appropriate Product Line and ask for advice.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

A Care Program Manager has to enable a customer\’s NOLS access. Who has to be involved?

A. FandC and the CT must be involved.

B. Legal and NOLS support is required to set up a separate agreement.

C. This can be done by the Care Program Manager alone.

D. This is an administrative task handled by NOLS support.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

What is the PRIMARY reason for the Care Program Manager to be involved in the tendering phase?

A. To support offer tailoring by giving insight into existing customer needs.

B. To provide a more hands-on approach to the offer.

C. To ensure commitment to the implementation schedule, resource requirements, rollout and other plans.

D. Give background information on customer needs and to ensure that the Care services requirements are met.

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

At the Care Contract Renewal Milestone 3 “First Proposal” which topic should be agreed before the contract is presented to the Customer?

A. Terms and Conditions.

B. Cost baseline.

C. Penalty proposal.

D. Long term contract strategy.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Who should be the responsible person in NSN to send the expiry notice letter of the Care Contract to the Customer?

A. Account Manager.

B. Care Program Manager.

C. CT FandC.

D. CT Head or Account Manager.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Who should be the responsible person in NSN to discuss with the Customer\’s Operations Manager the needed services and their view on the current Care Contract?

A. Account Manager or Care Program Manager.

B. Account Manager.

C. Care Program Manager.

D. Service Engagement Manager.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

If a CSDA gets declined, how much notice should be given to a customer that services will terminate?

A. 10 working days.

B. 30 working days.

C. 30 calendar days.

D. CT Head decides.

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

What is the base-line against which we track Care profit?

A. As-sold total contract profitability.

B. Previous LE.

C. Annual plan.

D. ATP.

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

What is Cost of Goods Sold?

A. Marketing Costs.

B. Contract Financing Costs.

C. Entertainment Costs.

D. The cost of producing Products or Services sold.

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

Where will an account manager find the largest source of case studies, whitepapers, demos, and vertical- oriented Information around Cisco Collaboration?

A. Collaboration Use Case

B. QuickStart for Cisco Collaboration

C. Cisco Competitive Edge Portal

D. Steps to Success

E. Cisco Collaboration business case

Correct Answer: E


Question 2:

You are discussing Cisco Collaboration Architecture with the IT manager of an organization. Which three statements are effective responses that relate to the IT manager\’s concerns? (Choose three)

A. Collaboration tools improve upon ways in which corporations can enforce employee accountability.

B. The Collaboration Architecture, by design, ensures the highest availability.

C. Improved collaboration tools improve the end-user experience and will make the IT manager more popular

D. A centralized Collaboration Architecture deployment will ease management and save money.

E. Initial costs may be higher, but comparing the Total Cost of Ownership over a five-year period will show that the Cisco product is less expensive.

F. A fully-deployed Collaboration Architecture supports efficient training in a variety of ways

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 3:

Which three options are important selling points for Cisco against Microsoft? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco provides unparalleled value to the managed service provider.

B. Cisco routers represent a competitive edge in remote offices.

C. Cisco has the maturity both in technology development and empirical deployment to scale to the requirements of large enterprises.

D. Cisco is well respected and is the only serious choice in collaboration.

E. Cisco better enables for mobility and deskless workers.

F. Cisco Unified Presence can be integrated with Microsoft Office Communicator and Microsoft Lync.

Correct Answer: CEF


Question 4:

Which digital signaling is correctly mapped to its functionality?

A. T1 PRI NFAS – Used to connect to the PSTN where caller ID is required and PRI is not an option

B. T1 CAS – Used widely in North America to connect to the PSTN or PBXs

C. T1 FGD – Uses a single D channel to control multiple spans of T1s with only B channels option

D. T1 and E1 PRI – Uses the Q Signaling variation of the basic ISDN specification

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which three statements describe Cisco Enterprise License Manager? (Choose three)

A. It enables customers to see whether they require additional licenses and how the purchased licenses are utilized.

B. It is centralized and free, and it manages licenses across multiple clusters through license management, reporting, and compliance systems.

C. It includes soft clients, applications server software, and licensing on a per-user basis.

D. It is available in Professional, Standard, and Entry Editions.

E. It is an enterprise-wide management tool for all Cisco Collaboration licenses

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 6:

Which two statements about how PBX architectures compare to Cisco Unified Communications are true? (Choose two.)

A. A PBX architecture offers advanced, integrated applications such as presence and integrated video.

B. Cisco Unified Communications offers advanced, integrated applications such as presence and integrated video.

C. Cisco Unified Communications provides historical reporting, unlike traditional PBXs.

D. Cisco Unified Communications decreases costs of MACs

E. A PBX offers increased security.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 7:

Which two reasons make the Cisco Collaboration Architecture important for the marketing manager? (Choose two.)

A. The Cisco Collaboration Architecture provides real-time call detail records.

B. Cisco Collaboration Architecture can support the sales force to achieve higher productivity.

C. The marketing manager is interested in how the Cisco Collaboration Architecture will help provide a better corporate image.

D. The Cisco Collaboration Architecture improves the means by which a company can stay in touch with customers.

E. Transition to Collaboration Architecture is easier than transition to a closed, legacy system

Correct Answer: BD


Question 8:

Which two are features of Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 6000? (Choose two.)

A. It unifies desk phone, wireless phone, IP phone, and instant messaging.

B. It has capacity for 75 to 300 users and supports up to 10 sites

C. It runs on the Cisco MCS 7890 hardware

D. It is backwards compatible, which means that it will run on old Cisco MCS hardware.

E. It supports Cisco Unified Contact Center Express.

Correct Answer: AE


Question 9:

Which company stakeholder may ask questions relating to improving resource efficiency while maintaining regulatory compliance during evaluation of a new architecture or strategy?

A. Chief Financial Officer

B. Chief Information Officer

C. Chief Executive Officer

D. Vice President

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which option is a next-generation agent and supervisor desktop that offers a user-centric design to enhance customer care satisfaction along with a collaborative experience?

A. Cisco WebEx

B. Cisco SocialMiner

C. Cisco Finesse

D. Cisco Jabber

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

In which layer of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture do you find session and content management?

A. Collaboration applications layer

B. Endpoint device layer

C. Infrastructure layer

D. Collaboration services layer

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Cisco supply chain agility solutions are addressing a crucial part within the manufacturing industry.

Which of the following is the main driver of that branch of industry?

A. Adopt the supply chain to changing markets

B. Achieve lower unit costs

C. Achieve stronger competitive position in the marketplace

D. Increase utilization of manufacturing plants

E. Ensure quality standards to customers

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which of the following is a main business requirement in the financial services industry?

A. Reduce time to market for new innovative financial products

B. Integration of financial trading applications at the desktop

C. Customer retention

D. High-performance trading

E. Lower IT expenses through virtualization

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Which sequence of steps is correct for mapping business drivers with collaboration solutions?

A. Ask questions; present collaboration solution; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; aggregate the business drivers.

B. Ask questions; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; aggregate the business drivers; present collaboration solution.

C. Ask questions; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; present collaboration solution; aggregate the business drivers.

D. Ask questions; aggregate the business drivers; map business drivers with collaboration solutions; present collaboration solution.

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Which two options are ways by which collaboration has impacted the government sector? (Choose two.)

A. Improved safety and security

B. Improved operations and impact

C. Anytime, anywhere learning

D. Growing loyalty

E. Increased employee productivity

Correct Answer: AB


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Question 1:

A server has three disks of 80GB each and must manage a database with 4 million records of 30KB each. The best configuration for this server, with the criteria being performance, configurability and flexibility, is:

A. Use just LVM

B. Use RAID1 over LVM

C. Use LVM over RAID5

D. Use LVM over RAID1

E. Use RAID5 over LVM

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

You decide to use the logical volume manager (LVM) to manage four 4GB disk drives. After creating the volume group, how would you create a 10GB logical volume called big-app?

A. vgcreate-p 10g-n/dev/vg01/big-app

B. vgcreate -l 2560 /dev/vg0 1/big-app

C. vg01/big-app mklvm -v 10240 -n /dev/

D. lvcreate -v 10240 /dev/ vg01/big-app

E. lvcreate -l 2560 vg01 -n big-app

Correct Answer: E


Question 3:

Which RAID level provides the most redundancy?

A. RAID4

B. RAID5

C. RAID1

D. RAID0

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Before compiling a new kernel, what needs to be done?

A. Compile kernel modules

B. Configurethekerneloptions

C. Delete old kernel sources

D. Change to runlevel 1

E. All of the above

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

One of the IDE hard drives in a server is transferring data very slowly. What command must be run to enable DMA on it?

A. hdparm -d /dev/hda

B. hdparm –dma /dev/hda

C. hdparm –dma /dev/hdal

D. hdparm -d /dev/hdal

E. hdparm -dl /dev/hda

Correct Answer: E


Question 6:

What command is used to create an ISO9660 filesystem that can be properly accessed from a Windows 95/98 machine?

A. mkisofs -l -o backup.iso /home/joe

B. mkisofs -J -T -r -o backup.iso /home/joe

C. mkisofs -D -T -o backup.iso /home/joe

D. mkisofs -j -T -o backup.iso /home/joe

E. mkisofs -d -T -o backup.iso /home/joe

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

To make a system backup, the simplest and fastest way is to use the tar command. Select the correct alternative below that shows the three tar parameters that create, list and expand a tar file respectively.

A. –create–list–extract

B. –compose –list –expand

C. -c -t -e

D. -c -l -x

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

What is the command to add another IP address to an interface that already has (at least) one IP address?

A. ifconfig eth0:1 192.168.1.2

B. ifconfigeth0192.168.1.2

C. ipconfig eth0:1 192.168.1.2

D. ipconfig eth0 192.168.1.2

E. ifconfigeth0:sub1192.168.1.2

Correct Answer: AE


Question 9:

What needs to be done to enable 32 bit I/O transfer mode for (E)IDE disks, on a system running a 2.4 series Linux kernel?

A. The Linux kernel must be recompiled.

B. The sysctl utility must be used.

C. The hdparm utility must be used.

D. This feature isn\’t supported in 2.4 series kernels.

E. This feature is enabled by default in 2.4 series kernels

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

The following is an excerpt from the output of tcpdump -nli ethl \’udp\’:

13:03:17.277327 IP 192.168.123.5.1065 > 192.168.5.112.53: 43653 A? lpi.org. (25)

13:03:17.598624 IP 192.168.5.112.53 > 192.168.123.5.1065: 43653 1/0/0 A 24.215.7.109 (4l)

Which networkservice or protocol wasused?

A. FTP

B. HTTP

C. SSH

D. DNS

E. DHCP

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Considering the following kernel IP routing table now, which of the following commands must be remove the route to the network l0.l0.1.0/24? Kernel IP routing table Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface

200.207.199.162 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 UH 0 0 0 ppp0

172.16.87.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 0 0 0 eth0

192.168.246.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 0 0 0 eth1

10.10.1.0 192.168.246.11 255.255.255.0 UG 0 0 0 eth1

127.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 U 0 0 0 lo

0.0.0.0 200.207.199.162 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 ppp0

A. route del

10.10.1.0

B. route del 10.10.1.0/24

C. route del -net 10.10.1.0/24

D. route del 10.10.1.0/24 gw

192.168.246.11

E. route del -net

10.10.1.0

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

A DNS server has the IP address 192.168.0.1. Which TWO of the following need to be done on a client machine to use thisDNSserver?

A. Add nameserver 192.168.0.1 to /etc/resolv.conf

B. Run route add nameserver 192.168.0.1

C. Run ifconfig eth0 nameserver 192.168.0.1

D. Ensure that the dns service is listed in the hosts entry in the /etc/nsswitch.conf file

E. Run bind add nameserver 192.168.0.1

Correct Answer: AD


Question 13:

WhichofthesewayscanbeusedtoonlyallowaccesstoaDNSserverfrom specifiednetworks/hosts?

A. Using the limit{…;};statement in the named configuration file.

B. Using the allow-query{…;};statement in the named configuration file.

C. Using the answer only{…;};statement in the named configuration file.

D. Using the answer{…;};statement in the named configuration file.

E. Using the query access{…;};statement in the named configuration file.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Which of these commands allows you to use shared libraries that are in /usr/local/lib?

A. export LD_PRELOAD=/usr/local/lib

B. exportLD_LIBRARY_PATH=/usr/local/lib

C. ldconfig /usr/local/lib

D. ldd /usr/local/lib

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

After unpacking the source code for a Linux kernel, what is the first make command that should be run which will delete any current configuration and all generated files? This command will ensure that no inappropriate files were left in the kernel archive by the maintainer.

A. make depend

B. make distclean

C. make config

D. make clean

E. makemrproper

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Which fields are created by this Derive dialog?

A. Three fields representing the difference between Travel-1 and each of the other Travel fields

B. No operation will be performed because the expression is invalid.

C. Four fields representing the difference in weeks between AcclEst and each of the Travel fields

D. A field representing the difference between AcctEst and the global @FIELD value

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which method would be used on the Merge node in order to combine a file containing 100 products and a file containing 50 suppliers and retain only the matching records?

A. Inner join

B. Anti-join

C. Full outer join

D. Partial outer join

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

A department manager has read access to the salaries of the employees in his/her department but not to the salaries of employees in other departments. A database security mechanism that enforces this policy would typically be said to provide which of the following?

A. Content-dependent access control

B. Context-dependent access control

C. Least privileges access control

D. Ownership-based access control

Correct Answer: A

When access control is based on the content of an object, it is considered to be content dependent access control.

Content-dependent access control is based on the content itself.

The following answers are incorrect:

context-dependent access control. Is incorrect because this type of control is based on what the context is, facts about the data rather than what the object contains. least privileges access control. Is incorrect because this is based on the

least amount of rights needed to perform their jobs and not based on what is contained in the database. ownership-based access control. Is incorrect because this is based on the owner of the data and and not based on what is contained in

the database.

References:

OIG CBK Access Control (page 191)


Question 2:

Which of the following attacks could capture network user passwords?

A. Data diddling

B. Sniffing

C. IP Spoofing

D. Smurfing

Correct Answer: B

A network sniffer captures a copy every packet that traverses the network segment the sniffer is connect to.

Sniffers are typically devices that can collect information from a communication medium, such as a network. These devices can range from specialized equipment to basic workstations with customized software.

A sniffer can collect information about most, if not all, attributes of the communication. The most common method of sniffing is to plug a sniffer into an existing network device like a hub or switch. A hub (which is designed to relay all traffic

passing through it to all of its ports) will automatically begin sending all the traffic on that network segment to the sniffing device. On the other hand, a switch (which is designed to limit what traffic gets sent to which port) will have to be

specially configured to send all traffic to the port where the sniffer is plugged in.

Another method for sniffing is to use a network tap–a device that literally splits a network transmission into two identical streams; one going to the original network destination and the other going to the sniffing device. Each of these methods

has its advantages and disadvantages, including cost, feasibility, and the desire to maintain the secrecy of the sniffing activity.

The packets captured by sniffer are decoded and then displayed by the sniffer. Therfore, if the username/ password are contained in a packet or packets traversing the segment the sniffer is connected to, it will capture and display that

information (and any other information on that segment it can see).

Of course, if the information is encrypted via a VPN, SSL, TLS, or similar technology, the information is still captured and displayed, but it is in an unreadable format.

The following answers are incorrect:

Data diddling involves changing data before, as it is enterred into a computer, or after it is extracted.

Spoofing is forging an address and inserting it into a packet to disguise the origin of the communication – or causing a system to respond to the wrong address. Smurfing would refer to the smurf attack, where an attacker sends spoofed

packets to the broadcast address on a gateway in order to cause a denial of service.

The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:

CISA Review manual 2014 Page number 321

Official ISC2 Guide to the CISSP 3rd edition Page Number 153


Question 3:

The number of violations that will be accepted or forgiven before a violation record is produced is called which of the following?

A. clipping level

B. acceptance level

C. forgiveness level

D. logging level

Correct Answer: A

The correct answer is “clipping level”. This is the point at which a system decides to take some sort of action when an action repeats a preset number of times. That action may be to log the activity, lock a user account, temporarily close a port, etc.

Example: The most classic example of a clipping level is failed login attempts. If you have a system configured to lock a user\’s account after three failed login attemts, that is the “clipping level”.

The other answers are not correct because:

Acceptance level, forgiveness level, and logging level are nonsensical terms that do not exist (to my knowledge) within network security.

Reference:

Official ISC2 Guide – The term “clipping level” is not in the glossary or index of that book. I cannot find it in the text either. However, I\’m quite certain that it would be considered part of the CBK, despite its exclusion from the Official Guide.

All in One Third Edition page: 136 – 137


Question 4:

Guards are appropriate whenever the function required by the security program involves which of the following?

A. The use of discriminating judgment

B. The use of physical force

C. The operation of access control devices

D. The need to detect unauthorized access

Correct Answer: A

The Answer: The use of discriminating judgment, a guard can make the determinations that hardware or other automated security devices cannot make due to its ability to adjust to rapidly changing conditions, to learn and alter recognizable

patterns, and to respond to various conditions in the environment. Guards are better at making value decisions at times of incidents. They are appropriate whenever immediate, discriminating judgment is required by the security entity.

The following answers are incorrect:

The use of physical force This is not the best answer. A guard provides discriminating judgment, and the ability to discern the need for physical force. The operation of access control devices A guard is often uninvolved in the operations of an

automated access control device such as a biometric reader, a smart lock, mantrap, etc. The need to detect unauthorized access The primary function of a guard is not to detect unauthorized access, but to prevent unauthorized physical

access attempts and may deter social engineering attempts.

The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:

Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley and Sons, 2001, Chapter 10: Physical security (page 339).

Source: ISC2 Offical Guide to the CBK page 288-289.


Question 5:

In which of the following security models is the subject\’s clearance compared to the object\’s classification such that specific rules can be applied to control how the subject-to-object interactions take place?

A. Bell-LaPadula model

B. Biba model

C. Access Matrix model

D. Take-Grant model

Correct Answer: A

The Bell-LAPadula model is also called a multilevel security system because users with different clearances use the system and the system processes data with different classifications. Developed by the US Military in the 1970s.

A security model maps the abstract goals of the policy to information system terms by specifying explicit data structures and techniques necessary to enforce the security policy. A security model is usually represented in mathematics and analytical ideas, which are mapped to system specifications and then developed by programmers through programming code. So we have a policy that encompasses security goals, such as “each subject must be authenticated and authorized before accessing an object.” The security model takes this requirement and provides the necessary mathematical formulas, relationships, and logic structure to be followed to accomplish this goal.

A system that employs the Bell-LaPadula model is called a multilevel security system because users with different clearances use the system, and the system processes data at different classification levels. The level at which information is classified determines the handling procedures that should be used. The Bell- LaPadula model is a state machine model that enforces the confidentiality aspects of access control. A matrix and security levels are used to determine if subjects can access different objects. The subject\’s clearance is compared to the object\’s classification and then specific rules are applied to control how subject-to-object subject-to- object interactions can take place.

Reference(s) used for this question:

Harris, Shon (2012-10-25). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (p. 369). McGraw-Hill. Kindle Edition.


Question 6:

Which of the following classes is the first level (lower) defined in the TCSEC (Orange Book) as mandatory protection?

A. B

B. A

C. C

D. D

Correct Answer: A

B level is the first Mandatory Access Control Level. First published in 1983 and updated in 1985, the TCSEC, frequently referred to as the Orange Book, was a United States Government Department of Defense (DoD) standard that sets basic standards for the implementation of security protections in computing systems. Primarily intended to help the DoD find products that met those basic standards, TCSEC was used to evaluate, classify, and select computer systems being considered for the processing, storage, and retrieval of sensitive or classified information on military and government systems. As such, it was strongly focused on enforcing confidentiality with no focus on other aspects of security such as integrity or availability. Although it has since been superseded by the common criteria, it influenced the development of other product evaluation criteria, and some of its basic approach and terminology continues to be used.

Reference used for this question:

Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 17920-17926). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.

and

THE source for all TCSEC “level” questions:

http://csrc.nist.gov/publications/secpubs/rainbow/std001.txt (paragraph 3 for this one)


Question 7:

Which of the following division is defined in the TCSEC (Orange Book) as minimal protection?

A. Division D

B. Division C

C. Division B

D. Division A

Correct Answer: A

The criteria are divided into four divisions: D, C, B, and A ordered in a hierarchical manner with the highest division (A) being reserved for systems providing the most comprehensive security.

Each division represents a major improvement in the overall confidence one can place in the system for the protection of sensitive information.

Within divisions C and B there are a number of subdivisions known as classes. The classes are also ordered in a hierarchical manner with systems representative of division C and lower classes of division B being characterized by the set of

computer security mechanisms that they possess. Assurance of correct and complete design and implementation for these systems is gained mostly through testing of the security- relevant portions of the system. The security-relevant

portions of a system are referred to throughout this document as the Trusted Computing Base (TCB).

Systems representative of higher classes in division B and division A derive their security attributes more from their design and implementation structure. Increased assurance that the required features are operative, correct, and tamperproof

under all circumstances is gained through progressively more rigorous analysis during the design process.

TCSEC provides a classification system that is divided into hierarchical divisions of assurance levels: Division D – minimal security Division C – discretionary protection Division B – mandatory protection Division A – verified protection Reference: page 358 AIO V.5 Shon Harris also Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, page 197. Also: THE source for all TCSEC “level” questions:

http://csrc.nist.gov/publications/secpubs/rainbow/std001.txt


Question 8:

Which of the following is not a physical control for physical security?

A. lighting

B. fences

C. training

D. facility construction materials

Correct Answer: C

Some physical controls include fences, lights, locks, and facility construction materials. Some administrative controls include facility selection and construction, facility management, personnel controls, training, and emergency response and procedures.

From: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 3rd. Ed., Chapter 6, page 403.


Question 9:

Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design (CPTED) is a discipline that: A. Outlines how the proper design of a physical environment can reduce crime by directly affecting human behavior.

B. Outlines how the proper design of the logical environment can reduce crime by directly affecting human behavior.

C. Outlines how the proper design of the detective control environment can reduce crime by directly affecting human behavior.

D. Outlines how the proper design of the administrative control environment can reduce crime by directly affecting human behavior.

Correct Answer: A

Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design (CPTED) is a discipline that outlines how the proper design of a physical environment can reduce crime by directly affecting human behavior. It provides guidance about lost and crime

prevention through proper facility contruction and environmental components and procedures.

CPTED concepts were developed in the 1960s. They have been expanded upon and have matured as our environments and crime types have evolved. CPTED has been used not just to develop corporate physical security programs, but also

for large-scale activities such as development of neighborhoods, towns, and cities. It addresses landscaping, entrances, facility and neighborhood layouts, lighting, road placement, and traffic circulation patterns. It looks at microenvironments,

such as offices and rest-rooms, and macroenvironments, like campuses and cities.

Reference(s) used for this question:

Harris, Shon (2012-10-18). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (p. 435). McGraw-Hill.

Kindle Edition.

and

CPTED Guide Book


Question 10:

The following is NOT a security characteristic we need to consider while choosing a biometric identification systems:

A. data acquisition process

B. cost

C. enrollment process

D. speed and user interface

Correct Answer: B

Cost is a factor when considering Biometrics but it is not a security characteristic.

All the other answers are incorrect because they are security characteristics related to Biometrics.

data acquisition process can cause a security concern because if the process is not fast and efficient it can discourage individuals from using the process.

enrollment process can cause a security concern because the enrollment process has to be quick and efficient. This process captures data for authentication.

speed and user interface can cause a security concern because this also impacts the users acceptance rate of biometrics. If they are not comfortable with the interface and speed they might sabotage the devices or otherwise attempt to

circumvent them.

References:

OIG Access Control (Biometrics) (pgs 165-167)

From: TIPTON, Harold F. and KRAUSE, MICKI, Information Security Management Handbook, 4th Edition, Volume 1, Pages 5-6.

in process of correction


Question 11:

The controls that usually require a human to evaluate the input from sensors or cameras to determine if a real threat exists are associated with:

A. Preventive/physical

B. Detective/technical

C. Detective/physical

D. Detective/administrative

Correct Answer: C

Detective/physical controls usually require a human to evaluate the input from sensors or cameras to determine if a real threat exists.

Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley and Sons, Page 36.


Question 12:

A central authority determines what subjects can have access to certain objects based on the organizational security policy is called:

A. Mandatory Access Control

B. Discretionary Access Control

C. Non-Discretionary Access Control

D. Rule-based Access control

Correct Answer: C

A central authority determines what subjects can have access to certain objects based on the organizational security policy.

The key focal point of this question is the \’central authority\’ that determines access rights. Cecilia one of the quiz user has sent me feedback informing me that NIST defines MAC as:

“MAC Policy means that Access Control Policy Decisions are made by a CENTRAL AUTHORITY. Which seems to indicate there could be two good answers to this question.

However if you read the NISTR document mentioned in the references below, it is also mentioned that:

MAC is the most mentioned NDAC policy. So MAC is a form of NDAC policy.

Within the same document it is also mentioned: “In general, all access control policies other than DAC are grouped in the category of non- discretionary access control (NDAC). As the name implies, policies in this category have rules that are

not established at the discretion of the user. Non-discretionary policies establish controls that cannot be changed by users, but only through administrative action.”

Under NDAC you have two choices:

Rule Based Access control and Role Base Access Control MAC is implemented using RULES which makes it fall under RBAC which is a form of NDAC.

It is a subset of NDAC.

This question is representative of what you can expect on the real exam where you have more than once choice that seems to be right. However, you have to look closely if one of the choices would be higher level or if one of the choice falls

under one of the other choice. In this case NDAC is a better choice because MAC is falling under NDAC through the use of Rule Based Access Control.

The following are incorrect answers:

MANDATORY ACCESS CONTROL

In Mandatory Access Control the labels of the object and the clearance of the subject determines access rights, not a central authority. Although a central authority (Better known as the Data Owner) assigns the label to the object, the system does the determination of access rights automatically by comparing the Object label with the Subject clearance. The subject clearance MUST dominate (be equal or higher) than the object being accessed.

The need for a MAC mechanism arises when the security policy of a system dictates that:

1.

Protection decisions must not be decided by the object owner.

2.

The system must enforce the protection decisions (i.e., the system enforces the security policy over the wishes or intentions of the object owner).

Usually a labeling mechanism and a set of interfaces are used to determine access based on the MAC policy; for example, a user who is running a process at the Secret classification should not be allowed to read a file with a label of Top Secret. This is known as the “simple security rule,” or “no read up.”

Conversely, a user who is running a process with a label of Secret should not be allowed to write to a file with a label of Confidential. This rule is called the “*-property” (pronounced “star property”) or “no write down.” The *-property is required to maintain system security in an automated environment.

DISCRETIONARY ACCESS CONTROL

In Discretionary Access Control the rights are determined by many different entities, each of the persons who have created files and they are the owner of that file, not one central authority.

DAC leaves a certain amount of access control to the discretion of the object\’s owner or anyone else who is authorized to control the object\’s access. For example, it is generally used to limit a user\’s access to a file; it is the owner of the file who controls other users\’ accesses to the file. Only those users specified by the owner may have some combination of read, write, execute, and other permissions to the file.

DAC policy tends to be very flexible and is widely used in the commercial and government sectors. However, DAC is known to be inherently weak for two reasons:

First, granting read access is transitive; for example, when Ann grants Bob read access to a file, nothing stops Bob from copying the contents of Ann\’s file to an object that Bob controls. Bob may now grant any other user access to the copy of Ann\’s file without Ann\’s knowledge.

Second, DAC policy is vulnerable to Trojan horse attacks. Because programs inherit the identity of the invoking user, Bob may, for example, write a program for Ann that, on the surface, performs some useful function, while at the same time destroys the contents of Ann\’s files. When investigating the problem, the audit files would indicate that Ann destroyed her own files. Thus, formally, the drawbacks of DAC are as follows:

Discretionary Access Control (DAC) Information can be copied from one object to another; therefore, there is no real assurance on the flow of information in a system.

No restrictions apply to the usage of information when the user has received it.

The privileges for accessing objects are decided by the owner of the object, rather than through a system- wide policy that reflects the organization\’s security requirements. ACLs and owner/group/other access control mechanisms are by far the most common mechanism for implementing DAC policies. Other mechanisms, even though not designed with DAC in mind, may have the capabilities to implement a DAC policy.

RULE BASED ACCESS CONTROL

In Rule-based Access Control a central authority could in fact determine what subjects can have access when assigning the rules for access. However, the rules actually determine the access and so this is not the most correct answer.

RuBAC (as opposed to RBAC, role-based access control) allow users to access systems and information based on pre determined and configured rules. It is important to note that there is no commonly understood definition or formally defined standard for rule-based access control as there is for DAC, MAC, and RBAC. “Rule-based access” is a generic term applied to systems that allow some form of organization-defined rules, and therefore rule-based access control encompasses a broad range of systems. RuBAC may in fact be combined with other models, particularly RBAC or DAC. A RuBAC system intercepts every access request and compares the rules with the rights of the user to make an access decision. Most of the rule-based access control relies on a security label system, which dynamically composes a set of rules defined by a security policy. Security labels are attached to all objects, including files, directories, and devices. Sometime roles to subjects (based on their attributes) are assigned as well. RuBAC meets the business needs as well as the technical needs of controlling service access. It allows business rules to be applied to access control–for example, customers who have overdue balances may be denied service access. As a mechanism for MAC, rules of RuBAC cannot be changed by users. The rules can be established by any attributes of a system related to the users such as domain, host, protocol, network, or IP addresses. For example, suppose that a user wants to access an object in another network on the other side of a router. The router employs RuBAC with the rule composed by the network addresses, domain, and protocol to decide whether or not the user can be granted access. If employees change their roles within the organization, their existing authentication credentials remain in effect and do not need to be re configured. Using rules in conjunction with roles adds greater flexibility because rules can be applied to people as well as to devices. Rule-based access control can be combined with role- based access control, such that the role of a user is one of the attributes in rule setting. Some provisions of access control systems have rule- based policy engines in addition to a role-based policy engine and certain implemented dynamic policies [Des03]. For example, suppose that two of the primary types of software users are product engineers and quality engineers. Both groups usually have access to the same data, but they have different roles to perform in relation to the data and the application\’s function. In addition, individuals within each group have different job responsibilities that may be identified using several types of attributes such as developing programs and testing areas. Thus, the access decisions can be made in real time by a scripted policy that regulates the access between the groups of product engineers and quality engineers, and each individual within these groups. Rules can either replace or complement role-based access control. However, the creation of rules and security policies is also a complex process, so each organization will need to strike the appropriate balance.

References used for this question:

http://csrc.nist.gov/publications/nistir/7316/NISTIR-7316.pdf

and

AIO v3 p162-167 and OIG (2007) p.186-191 also

KRUTZ, Ronald L. and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley and Sons, Page 33.


Question 13:

What is called the verification that the user\’s claimed identity is valid and is usually implemented through a user password at log-on time?

A. Authentication

B. Identification

C. Integrity

D. Confidentiality

Correct Answer: A

Authentication is verification that the user\’s claimed identity is valid and is usually implemented through a user password at log-on time.

Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley and Sons, Page 36.


Question 14:

Which one of the following factors is NOT one on which Authentication is based?

A. Type 1. Something you know, such as a PIN or password

B. Type 2. Something you have, such as an ATM card or smart card

C. Type 3. Something you are (based upon one or more intrinsic physical or behavioral traits), such as a fingerprint or retina scan

D. Type 4. Something you are, such as a system administrator or security administrator

Correct Answer: D

Authentication is based on the following three factor types:

Type 1. Something you know, such as a PIN or password

Type 2. Something you have, such as an ATM card or smart card

Type 3. Something you are (Unique physical characteristic), such as a fingerprint or retina scan

Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley and Sons, Page 36.

Also: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter 4:

Access Control (pages 132-133).


Question 15:

What is called a sequence of characters that is usually longer than the allotted number for a password?

A. passphrase

B. cognitive phrase

C. anticipated phrase

D. Real phrase

Correct Answer: A

A passphrase is a sequence of characters that is usually longer than the allotted number for a password.

Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. and VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley and Sons, page 37.


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Question 1:

Which of the following BEST describes the objective of the Core Asset Management processes?

A. To maintain information about software assets throughout their lifecycle and to manage the physical assets related to software

B. To manage all software assets and their licenses.

C. To manage all software and hardware assets

D. To identify and maintain information about all software assets throughout their lifecycle.

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Which of the following should be included in the Business Case documentation?

1.Recommended Implementation Plan 2.Business requirements and expected benefits 3.Executive Summary 4.Assessed alternative solutions

A. All

B. 2, 3 and 4

C. 1, 2 and 4

D. 1, 2 and 3.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

During Mergers and Acquisitions which of the following statements is FALSE?

A. Liabilities for under licensed software are null and void after the transaction

B. Any license shortfall should be disclosed as part of due diligence process

C. The right to transfer software licenses should be checked with the software manufacturers prior to transaction

D. Some software licenses do not allow transfer if purchased under a volume agreement.

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

What is the MOST essential activity that should be done after the Business Case is approved and is often overlooked?

A. Continue to sell the business case to users

B. Communicate project progress

C. Show stakeholders the results

D. Include interested parties in the project kick off meeting.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which of the following duties should be carried out by the Software Asset Manager?

1.Installing software 2.Producing periodic reconciliation reports 3.Maintaining a record of license purchases 4.Auditing the reconciliation results

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 2 and 4

C. 2 and 3

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4.

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Which of the following organizations would you LEAST expect to contact for advice on SAM?

A. BSA

B. BSI

C. FAST

D. itSMF.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

When selling the Business Case which of the following are essential?

1.Identifying a senior-level champion 2.Select a leading audit tool 3.Propose a solution that is compatible with current technology 4.Select the lowest cost solution

A. 1 and 4

B. 2, 3 and 4

C. 1 only

D. 4 only

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

In the United States, Software Assert Management is increasingly being reinforced by statutory governance requirements such as Sarbanes-Oxley. What is the name of the UK equivalent?

A. FAST

B. ITIL

C. Combined Code

D. BSA

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

For reporting purposes which of the following would you NOT expect to be used to derive SAM reports?

A. DSL

B. CMDB

C. OLA.

D. KEDB.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Which of these elements is part of the preparation stage of implementation?

A. Identifying and assessing software risks and creating a risk register

B. Occasionally completing surprise or ad hoc reviews and audits

C. Highlighting any problems and raising the profile of continued non-conformance

D. Continuously emphasise the importance of the SAM process to all ICT and business personnel.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which of these elements is part of the taying there stage of implementation?

A. Occasionally completing surprise or ad hoc reviews and audits

B. Continuously emphasise the importance of the SAM process to all ICT and business personnel

C. Developing and measuring metrics that demonstrate continuous improvement and year on year trend

D. Selecting, testing and deploying new or updated SAM tools.

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

What should be clearly defined in the early stages of a SAM implementation?

1.Scope and Terms of Reference 2.Sponsorship and Ownership 3.Processes, Roles and responsibilities

A. All of them

B. Only 1

C. 2 and 3

D. 1 and 2.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which of the following will the appointment of a single Software Asset Manager in an organisation facilitate?

1.Provide a single point of contact for SAM matters 2.Concentrate the responsibility for implementing software upgrades in one post 3.Decrease the incidence of unused software licenses 4.Provide an owner for SAM processes

A. 1, 3 and 4

B. 1, 2, 3 and 4

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. 2, 3 and 4.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

The following SAM objective is part of which implementation stage? “Review of the risk register and the implementation of software risk mitigation actions using cost justifiable countermeasures”.

A. Staying there

B. Getting there

C. Preparation

D. Proving you are staying there.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which of the following does ITIL recommend the use of for the management of software assets?

1.Definitive Software Library 2.Configuration Management Database

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Neither

D. Both.

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

View the exhibits.

Examine the output of sar command and the top command in the Exhibits. Which statement is the correct interpretation of this data?

A. The system is running low on swap space and memory.

B. CPU is Idle and the system has plenty of free memory available.

C. The CPU utilization is high and one process is using most of the CPU.

D. The system is idle with very little memory, CPU, and I/O utilization.

Correct Answer: C

From the top exhibit we see that npviewer.gin uses 73.4% of the available CPU. Note:

*

sar – Collect, report, or save system activity information.

*

The sar command writes to standard output the contents of selected cumulative activity counters in the operating system. The accounting system, based on the values in the count and interval parameters, writes information the specified

number of times spaced at the specified intervals in seconds.

*

sar u 2 5

Report CPU utilization for each 2 seconds. 5 lines are displayed.


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Question 1:

You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service administrator.

Members of the customer support staff must not be available on public holidays in the year 2021.

You need to configure holiday schedules.

Which actions should you perform? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/customer-service/set-up-holiday-schedule


Question 2:

You are implementing Dynamics 365 for Customer Service.

You need to set up available working hours to help desk representatives who have varying schedules.

What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 3:

You view the interactive dashboard in the Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customer Service Hub.

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 4:

You are configuring a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service instance.

Customer service manager cannot create new entitlements for customer service representatives.

You need to ensure that customer service managers can add new entitlement templates and knowledge base records for customer service representatives.

Which access levels should you apply? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 5:

You are using Dynamics 365 for Customer Service. You have existing routing rules.

You need to create a routing rule for cases and bulk-import cases.

Which actions should you perform? To answer, select the appropriate action in the dialog box in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 6:

You are a customer service representative working with cases in Dynamics 365 for Customer Service.

You need to manage multiple lists of cases.

Which actions should you perform? To answer, select the appropriate configuration in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 7:

You are customizing a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service implementation.

The call center manager requires a visual representation that includes the number of resolved cases by month for each call center agent. The chart must be visible to all users within the service area.

You need to create the chart.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 8:

You manage Dynamics 365 for Customer Service.

You need to create a list of holidays and ensure that existing service-level agreements (SLAs) observe those holidays.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/customer-service/create-customer-service-schedule-define-work-hours


Question 9:

You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service administrator.

Your company requires a new phone-to-case business process flow for customer service representatives to follow.

The stages are as follows:

1. Verification

2. Acknowledgement and research

3. Resolution

Customer service representatives must send an email to the customer when a case enters the acknowledgement-and-research stage.

You need to create the required business process flow and components.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/customize/create-business-process-flow https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/customize/workflow-processes


Question 10:

You are a Dynamics 365 system administrator.

Your customer service team must define goal metrics to track and measure all resolved cases.

You need to create a goal metric with a rollup field.

In which order should you perform the actions? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/sales-enterprise/create-edit-goal-metric


Question 11:

A customer uses Dynamics 365 for Customer Service.

Customer service representatives must be able to create knowledge base articles.

You need to ensure that all knowledge base articles are submitted for review and approval before they are made available to use.

Which four actions must be performed in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/customer-service/customer-service-hub-user-guide-knowledge-article


Question 12:

You make a phone call regarding an existing case record.

You need to create a phone call activity that appears on the case record timeline.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 13:

You are a customer service representative using Dynamics 365 Customer Service Hub.

You need to link the knowledge base records that relate to cases and send articles to customers.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in them correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 14:

You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator.

You need to create service-level agreements (SLAs) to meet company requirements.

What SLA types should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate SLA types to the correct requirements. Each SLA type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view

content.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/customer-service/define-service-level-agreements


Question 15:

You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service administrator.

You need to implement queues to manage cases.

Which queue types should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate queue types to the correct scenarios. Each queue type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view

content.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/customer-service/set-up-queues-manage-activities-cases