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[PDF and VCE] Latest C9560-503 Exam Practice Materials Free Downloading

[PDF and VCE] Latest C9560-503 Exam Practice Materials Free Downloading

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Question 1:

Which statement is true regarding Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server V6.3 (TEPS)?

A. Oracle is now a supported database for TEPS.

B. Authorization policy enforcement is enabled by default.

C. IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.3 strongly recommends the upgrade to Java 6.

D. The dashboard data provider is optionally enabled during the TEPS configuration.

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

If an agent is going to save its metric data in the Tivoli Data Warehouse, it must communicate with which two components? (Choose two.)

A. Warehouse Proxy agent

B. Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server

C. Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server

D. Summarization and Pruning agent

E. Relational Database Management Server

Correct Answer: AC


Question 3:

What can an IBM Tivoli Monitoring administrator do to help users view events when the Situation Event Console is constantly receiving too many alerts per hour?

A. Disable the Situation Event Console and clear alerts

B. Move the Situation Event Console to a separate server

C. Use IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNI bus and send alerts to that console if entitled

D. The Situation Event Console is multi-threaded so add more processes to the process

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Which type of files are required for presenting workspaces, online help, and expert advice for the agent in Tivoli Enterprise Portal?

A. audit and policy files

B. catalog and attribute files

C. help and presentation files

D. application configuration files

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which statement is true about correlated situations?

A. They can only be used if referenced in a policy.

B. They only run at the Hub Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server.

C. They only run at Remote Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Servers.

D. They run at the Hub Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server and Remote Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server.

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Which step is necessary to create a new query for data retrieval?

A. Click the Query Editor Icon on the Tivoli Enterprise Portal (TEP) tool bar.

B. Click the Modify Query icon on the TEP tool bar.

C. Click Administration Mode and then select the Query Editor from the list.

D. Click Administration Mode, click List, and then select Query Editor from the list.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

What is supplied with each monitoring agent?

A. Attribute Groups

B. Tivoli Data Warehouse reports

C. Universal Agent Data Providers

D. IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNI bus rules

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

What should be used to show trends overtime among related attributes?

A. Bar chart

B. Plot chart

C. Topology view

D. Linear gauge chart

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

What is a workspace as it relates to IBM Tivoli Monitoring?

A. A screen in the Tivoli Enterprise Portal (TEP) to display data.

B. A policy in the TEP for displaying logical views.

C. A screen that displays only temporary historical data.

D. A policy in the TEP for displaying information for physical views.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

What does this command do: tivcmd grant?

A. assigns a new user group in the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server

B. assigns a new user in the Dashboard Application Services Hub

C. assigns permission to a role in Dashboard Application Services Hub

D. assigns users or groups to a role in the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

What happens when Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server (TEMS) Configuration setting Security: Validate User is selected?

A. Password is validated at the TEMS.

B. Set password never expires on the TEMS.

C. LDAP user password is verified as valid at the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server (TEPS).

D. No password is requested when a user logs on to the TEPS.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which command starts an agent on a Linux platform?

A. tacmd start agent

B. tacmd agent start

C. tacmd agent start

D. tacmd agent launch

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which link type specifies an identifier for the target workspace?

A. Simple

B. Relative

C. Absolute

D. Dynamic

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Which statement is true regarding the Navigator Logical view in Tivoli Enterprise Portal?

A. It is a discovered view.

B. It is the default navigator view.

C. It initially shows one navigator item.

D. It shows the physical hierarchy of an environment by default.

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Which user permission allows the user to create new navigator views as well as edit and delete them in Tivoli Enterprise Portal?

A. Action> Modify

B. Custom Navigator Views > Modify

C. Workspace Administration > Workspace Author Mode

D. Workspace Administration > Workspace Administration Mode

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

After presenting a LUN to a Linux host, which utility is used to configure a partition?

A. fdisk

B. Disk Management

C. Unisphere Server Utility

D. Unisphere Service Manager

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Which criterion must be met before executing the storagepool destroy command with Navisphere Secure CLI?

A. Complete removal of all LUNs from the pool

B. Complete removal of unused LUNs from the pool

C. Complete removal of large LUNs from the pool

D. Complete removal of empty LUNs from the pool

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

What is an advantage of the VAAI feature when provisioning an ESXi host from a VNX array?

A. Some workload can be offloaded from the host to the array freeing up host resources

B. vCenter can directly communicate with the array to discover capabilities and monitor health

C. Hosts automatically register initiators with the array and optimize initiator configuration

D. Array connectivity is automatically load balanced and protected from path failures

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

A storage administrator has provisioned storage to a server, but only some of the LUNs are visible to the host.

What would explain why some LUNs appear to be missing?

A. The \’missing\’ LUNs were not added to the storage group.

B. The host initiators are not logged into the array.

C. The disk alignment has not been set to the 1 MB boundary.

D. The host agent is not connected to the storage system.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

A storage administrator is preparing to provision storage for a data warehouse application. What can the administrator do to maximize application performance?

A. Use SAS drives to create a RAID 5 RAID Group with High Bandwidth Reads enabled.

B. Use EFD drives to create a RAID 5 RAID Group with High Bandwidth Reads enabled.

C. Choose 1024 block stripe element size when binding LUNs.

D. Choose 128 block stripe element size when binding LUNs.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

What default option does a newly created file system have when it is NFS exported?

A. R/W

B. R/W/X

C. R/O

D. R/X

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

An administrator tries to modify the quota settings on a CIFS share using a Windows 2000 server, but the Quota tab does not exist in the network drive properties. What could be a possible cause?

A. Exporting is implemented at the file system subdirectory level on VNX OE for File.

B. Windows users cannot modify the quota settings.

C. The user does not have administrator privileges on this share.

D. Quotas can be managed only with Windows 2003 or Windows 2008.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

During the installation process of a VNX for Block and File system, you are prompted to change passwords for the default accounts.

Which user password can be changed?

A. sysadmin

B. storageadmin

C. admin

D. administrator

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

In a VNX Unified system, how can the lost found and etc directories be hidden from the client when exporting a file system?

A. Export the file system at the subdirectory level and not the root file system

B. Use FDISK to mark the partition active prior to exporting

C. Leave the Root Hosts section empty when exporting

D. Select the Host Access Read-only check box prior to exporting.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

What is a critical performance and availability consideration when configuring traditional RAID Groups on a VNX array?

A. Larger RAID 5 groups have increased risk to availability and higher IO throughput

B. Larger RAID 5 groups have decreased risk to availability and lower IO throughput

C. Smaller RAID 5 groups have increased risk to availability and lower IO throughput

D. Smaller RAID 5 groups have decreased risk to availability and higher IO throughput

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which feature integrates VNX storage provisioning management within vCenter?

A. Virtual Storage Integrator (VSI)

B. VMware Aware Storage API (VASA)

C. vStorage API for Array Integration (VAAI)

D. VNX Unisphere Service Manager (USM)

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

A Linux host has been set up and successfully connected to the VNX array, but the local administrator cannot issue CLI commands. What is a possible explanation of this behavior?

A. The local administrator was not added to the host agent configuration file

B. The host is only connected to one SP on the VNX array.

C. The host agent must be stopped for the utility to work.

D. Linux iSCSI CHAP data was entered on the target, but not the initiators.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

You are in the process of provisioning a new NAS volume with Unisphere. Where under the Unisphere Monitoring and Alerts section can you monitor or cancel the actions?

A. Background Tasks for File

B. Notifications for File

C. Event Logs for File

D. Setup Wizard for File

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

A SnapView snapshot can have how many snapshots of the source LUN?

A. 8

B. 24

C. 128

D. 256

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

In addition to EFD 3.5, which drive options are supported in VNX series arrays?

A. SAS 3.5 and 2.5, NL-SAS 3.5

B. SAS 3.5 and 2.5, SATA 2.5

C. FC 3.5 and 2.5, SATA 3.5 and 2.5

D. FC 3.5 and 2.5, SATA 3.5 only

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

FILL BLANK What command, depending on its options, can display the open TCP connections, the routing tables, as well as network interface statistics? (Specify only the command without any path or parameters.)

Correct Answer: netstat


Question 2:

FILL BLANK Which command included in NetworkManager is a curses application which provides easy acces to the NetworkManager on the command line? (Specify only the command without any path or parameters.)

Correct Answer: nmtui


Question 3:

FILL BLANK What is the top-level directory which contains the configuration files for CUPS? (Specify the full path to the directory.)

Correct Answer: /etc/cups/ cups-files.conf


Question 4:

FILL BLANK Which option in the /etc/ntp.conf file specifies an external NTP source to be queried for time information? (Specify only the option without any values or parameters.)

Correct Answer: server


Question 5:

FILL BLANK What command list the aliases defined in the current Bash shell? (Specify only the command without any path or parameters.)

Correct Answer: alias


Question 6:

FILL BLANK Which file is processed by newaliases? (Specify the full name of the file, including path.)

Correct Answer: /etc/mail/aliases


Question 7:

FILL BLANK What command is used to add OpenSSH private keys to a running ssh-agent instance? (Specify the command name only without any path.)

Correct Answer: ssh-add


Question 8:

FILL BLANK

Which directory holds configuration files for xinetd services? (Specify the full path to the directory.)

Correct Answer: /etc/xinetd.d/


Question 9:

FILL BLANK Which parameter is missing in the command

ip link set ____ dev eth0

to activate the previously inactive network interface eth0? (Specify the parameter only without any command, path or additional options.)

Correct Answer: up


Question 10:

FILL BLANK What option to useraddcreates a new user\’s home directory and provisions it with a set of standard files? (Specify only the option name without any values or parameters.)

Correct Answer: -D


Question 11:

FILL BLANK Which environment variable is used by an X11 client to determine the X Server to connect to? (Specify only the variable name without any preceding commands or values.)

Correct Answer: DISPLAY


Question 12:

Which of the following commands lists all defined variables and functions within Bash?

A. env

B. set

C. env -a

D. echo $ENV

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Which of the following configuration files should be modified to set default shell variables for all users?

A. /etc/bashrc

B. /etc/profile

C. ~/.bash_profile

D. /etc/.bashrc

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Which command makes the shell variable named VARIABLE visible to subshells?

A. export $VARIABLE

B. export VARIABLE

C. set $VARIABLE

D. set VARIABLE

E. env VARIABLE

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which of the following words is used to restrict the records that are returned from a SELECT query based on a supplied criteria for the values in the records?

A. LIMIT

B. FROM

C. WHERE

D. IF

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Huawei product technology training is designed based on the entire life cycle of the service, so all product line courses have corresponding plans,

A. True eeN#

B. False >

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which kind of scene is not to be provided by T? ()

A. original labor platform is about to pass insurance / B over insurance, it seems to purchase Huawei\’s virtual platform

B. New 11; After the battle, it seems to purchase Huawei\’s virtual platform

C. original It platform space can no longer be expanded again, through the purchase of Huawei\’s optimistic platform for more room for privacy

D. original IT platform performance B can not meet the needs of it, buy Huawei virtual m platform to soar performance

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

IP network project service expansion when to introduce service sales is most appropriate

A. customer\’s pre-project M {IM file)

B. customer is in the middle

C. After the client has established the project

D. customer after bidding

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

SmartNOS Bo is a subscription-based service that does not include a single evaluation optimization service.

A. True

B. False file>

C. S-process network

D. planning S service

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 5:

The IP planning and design service is more integrated with the planning of the S-Pen, and the front-end design is the work center.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

The status quo of traditional special IT subcontracting (multiple choices)

A. Each subcontractor draws up with each other ()

B. subcontractors are separated from each other ()

C. customer Lei wants more communication |

D. tube buried simple

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 7:

Advanced technical wood special training is a relatively important type of training freezing process in Huawei training and certification system.

A. Planning training

B. Design class

C. Real temple training

D. Drag class Igtflp white ?Bitter cas>;

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Huawei Enterprise Network China Data Center L1 Integration Service Project Contract Level U

A. is integrated (positive case)

B. BMf$, ^

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Huawei let migration solution: scheme is mainly divided into three kinds of fields, _ one is wrong? >

A. P2V also

B. other factories _ migration between umbrellas Positive case>

C. V2V \’

D. Huawei cloud platform internal migration

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

The L1 integration project of the teaching center is: the guilt that the R feedback should contain is (multiple choice)

A. client\’s capital budget and time requirements ()

B. Day of the customer show, the situation of the S, the progress of the channel platform

C. main competition opponents dynamic

D. current project operation phase ()

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 11:

Cloud IDC project government investment style (multiple choice)

A. financial allocation chess

B. BT chess style file>

C. public *

Correct Answer: AB


Question 12:

Huawei takes the ii certificationT o represent, the following is correct in the “CAhT” CT English mother is: (]

A. Certificate (recognition 5E)

B. Convergence

C. Cover (coverage)

D. Complete

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Data Center L1 Level 11; : 4S Stage Target ( > (multiple choice)

A. 1 from the existing contract interface and output service <positive)

B. sub-packaged Yan Guanyu and Tips (in the case of the case)

C. is good for steep resources and bad {correct case>

D. to make a reasonable S-effect construction plan | >

E. do a good job before the completion of technical delivery and training (positive _ murder case)

Correct Answer: ABCDE


Question 14:

The total integration mode can be completed by one bidding

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

The IP network planning and design service includes a simulation and simulation of the customer\’s

A. error

Correct Answer: A


Free Download the Most Update NSE7_OTS-6.4 Brain Dumps

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Question 1:

What are two benefits of a Nozomi integration with FortiNAC? (Choose two.)

A. Enhanced point of connection details

B. Direct VLAN assignment

C. Adapter consolidation for multi-adapter hosts

D. Importation and classification of hosts

Correct Answer: AB


Question 2:

Which three criteria can a FortiGate device use to look for a matching firewall policy to process traffic? (Choose three.)

A. Services defined in the firewall policy.

B. Source defined as internet services in the firewall policy

C. Lowest to highest policy ID number

D. Destination defined as internet services in the firewall policy

E. Highest to lowest priority defined in the firewall policy

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit and analyze the output.

Which statement about the output is true?

A. This is a sample of a FortiAnalyzer system interface event log.

B. This is a sample of an SNMP temperature control event log.

C. This is a sample of a PAM event type.

D. This is a sample of FortiGate interface statistics.

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which three Fortinet products can be used for device identification in an OT industrial control system (ICS)? (Choose three.)

A. FortiNAC

B. FortiManager

C. FortiAnalyzer

D. FortiSIEM

E. FortiGate

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

In the topology shown in the exhibit, both PLCs can communicate directly with each other, without going through the firewall.

Which statement about the topology is true?

A. PLCs use IEEE802.1Q protocol to communicate each other.

B. An administrator can create firewall policies in the switch to secure between PLCs.

C. This integration solution expands VLAN capabilities from Layer 2 to Layer 3.

D. There is no micro-segmentation in this topology.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

In a wireless network integration, how does FortiNAC obtain connecting MAC address information?

A. RADIUS

B. Link traps

C. End station traffic monitoring

D. MAC notification traps

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Which three common breach points can be found in a typical OT environment? (Choose three.)

A. Global hat

B. Hard hat

C. VLAN exploits

D. Black hat

E. RTU exploits

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit.

You are navigating through FortiSIEM in an OT network.

How do you view information presented in the exhibit and what does the FortiGate device security status tell you?

A. In the PCI logging dashboard and there are one or more high-severity security incidents for the FortiGate device.

B. In the summary dashboard and there are one or more high-severity security incidents for the FortiGate device.

C. In the widget dashboard and there are one or more high-severity incidents for the FortiGate device.

D. In the business service dashboard and there are one or more high-severity security incidents for the FortiGate device.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

An OT network administrator is trying to implement active authentication.

Which two methods should the administrator use to achieve this? (Choose two.)

A. Two-factor authentication on FortiAuthenticator

B. Role-based authentication on FortiNAC

C. FSSO authentication on FortiGate

D. Local authentication on FortiGate

Correct Answer: AB


Question 10:

An OT administrator deployed many devices to secure the OT network. However, the SOC team is reporting that there are too many alerts, and that many of the alerts are false positive. The OT administrator would like to find a solution that eliminates repetitive tasks, improves efficiency, saves time, and saves resources.

Which products should the administrator deploy to address these issues and automate most of the manual tasks done by the SOC team?

A. FortiSIEM and FortiManager

B. FortiSandbox and FortiSIEM

C. FortiSOAR and FortiSIEM

D. A syslog server and FortiSIEM

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit.

You need to configure VPN user access for supervisors at the breach and HQ sites using the same soft FortiToken. Each site has a FortiGate VPN gateway.

What must you do to achieve this objective?

A. You must use a FortiAuthenticator.

B. You must register the same FortiToken on more than one FortiGate.

C. You must use the user self-registration server.

D. You must use a third-party RADIUS OTP server.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

An OT supervisor has configured LDAP and FSSO for the authentication. The goal is that all the users be authenticated against passive authentication first and, if passive authentication is not successful, then

users should be challenged with active authentication. What should the OT supervisor do to achieve this on FortiGate?

A. Configure a firewall policy with LDAP users and place it on the top of list of firewall policies.

B. Enable two-factor authentication with FSSO.

C. Configure a firewall policy with FSSO users and place it on the top of list of firewall policies.

D. Under config user settings configure set auth-on-demand implicit.

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

An OT network architect needs to secure control area zones with a single network access policy to provision devices to any number of different networks.

On which device can this be accomplished?

A. FortiGate

B. FortiEDR

C. FortiSwitch

D. FortiNAC

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the topology designed by the OT architect, which two statements about implementing OT security are true? (Choose two.)

A. Firewall policies should be configured on FortiGate-3 and FortiGate-4 with industrial protocol sensors.

B. Micro-segmentation can be achieved only by replacing FortiGate-3 and FortiGate-4 with a pair of FortiSwitch devices.

C. IT and OT networks are separated by segmentation.

D. FortiGate-3 and FortiGate-4 devices must be in a transparent mode.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 15:

Which three methods of communication are used by FortiNAC to gather visibility information? (Choose three.)

A. SNMP

B. ICMP

C. API

D. RADIUS

E. TACACS

Correct Answer: ACD


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Question 1:

Which two statements about distributed automatic radio resource provisioning (DARRP) are correct? (Choose two.)

A. DARRP performs continuous spectrum analysis to detect sources of interference. It uses this information to allow the AP to select the optimum channel.

B. DARRP performs measurements of the number of BSSIDs and their signal strength (RSSI). The controller then uses this information to select the optimum channel for the AP.

C. DARRP measurements can be scheduled to occur at specific times.

D. DARRP requires that wireless intrusion detection (WIDS) be enabled to detect neighboring devices.

Correct Answer: AD

DARRP (Distributed Automatic Radio Resource Provisioning) technology ensures the wireless infrastructure is always optimized to deliver maximum performance. Fortinet APs enabled with this advanced feature continuously monitor the RF environment for interference, noise and signals from neighboring APs, enabling the FortiGate WLAN Controller to determine the optimal RF power levels for each AP on the network. When a new AP is provisioned, DARRP also ensures that it chooses the optimal channel, without administrator intervention.

Reference: http://www.corex.at/Produktinfos/FortiOS_Wireless.pdf


Question 2:

Which factor is the best indicator of wireless client connection quality?

A. Downstream link rate, the connection rate for the AP to the client

B. The receive signal strength (RSS) of the client at the AP

C. Upstream link rate, the connection rate for the client to the AP

D. The channel utilization of the channel the client is using

Correct Answer: B

SSI, or “Received Signal Strength Indicator,” is a measurement of how well your device can hear a signal from an access point or router. It\’s a value that is useful for determining if you have enough signal to get a good wireless connection.

Reference: https://www.metageek.com/training/resources/understanding-rssi.html


Question 3:

Refer to the exhibits.

Exhibit A.

Exhibit B.

Exhibit C.

A wireless network has been installed in a small office building and is being used by a business to connect its wireless clients. The network is used for multiple purposes, including corporate access, guest access, and connecting point-of-sale and IoТ devices.

Users connecting to the guest network located in the reception area are reporting slow performance. The network administrator is reviewing the information shown in the exhibits as part of the ongoing investigation of the problem. They show the profile used for the AP and the controller RF analysis output together with a screenshot of the GUI showing a summary of the AP and its neighboring APs.

To improve performance for the users connecting to the guest network in this area, which configuration change is most likely to improve performance?

A. Increase the transmission power of the AP radios

B. Enable frequency handoff on the AP to band steer clients

C. Reduce the number of wireless networks being broadcast by the AP

D. Install another AP in the reception area to improve available bandwidth

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which two statements about background rogue scanning are correct? (Choose two.)

A. A dedicated radio configured for background scanning can support the connection of wireless clients

B. When detecting rogue APs, a dedicated radio configured for background scanning can suppress the rogue AP

C. Background rogue scanning requires DARRP to be enabled on the AP instance

D. A dedicated radio configured for background scanning can detect rogue devices on all other channels in its configured frequency band.

Correct Answer: AB

To enable rogue AP scanning

Reference: https://fortinetweb.s3.amazonaws.com/docs.fortinet.com/v2/attachments/723e20ad-509811e9-94bf-00505692583a/FortiWiFi_and_FortiAP-6.2.0-Configuration_Guide.pdf


Question 5:

When configuring a wireless network for dynamic VLAN allocation, which three IETF attributes must be supplied by the radius server? (Choose three.)

A. 81 Tunnel-Private-Group-ID

B. 65 Tunnel-Medium-Type

C. 83 Tunnel-Preference

D. 58 Egress-VLAN-Name

E. 64 Tunnel-Type

Correct Answer: ABE

The RADIUS user attributes used for the VLAN ID assignment are:

IETF 64 (Tunnel Type)-set this to VLAN.

IETF 65 (Tunnel Medium Type)-set this to 802

IETF 81 (Tunnel Private Group ID)-set this to VLAN ID.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-vlan/71683dynamicvlan-config.html


Question 6:

Which two phases are part of the process to plan a wireless design project? (Choose two.)

A. Project information phase

B. Hardware selection phase

C. Site survey phase

D. Installation phase

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/computer-science/wireless-site-survey https://www.automation.com/en-us/articles/2015-2/wireless-device-network-planning-and-design


Question 7:

When enabling security fabric on the FortiGate interface to manage FortiAPs, which two types of communication channels are established between FortiGate and FortiAPs? (Choose two.)

A. Control channels

B. Security channels

C. FortLink channels

D. Data channels

Correct Answer: AD

The control channel for managing traffic, which is always encrypted by DTLS. l The data channel for carrying client data packets.

Reference: https://fortinetweb.s3.amazonaws.com/docs.fortinet.com/v2/attachments/ac61f4d3-ce67-11e98977-00505692583a/FortiWiFi_and_FortiAP-6.2-Cookbook.pdf


Question 8:

Which two configurations are compatible for Wireless Single Sign-On (WSSO)? (Choose two.)

A. A VAP configured for captive portal authentication

B. A VAP configured for WPA2 or 3 Enterprise

C. A VAP configured to authenticate locally on FortiGate

D. A VAP configured to authenticate using a radius server

Correct Answer: BD

In the SSID choose WPA2-Enterprise authentication.

WSSO is RADIUS-based authentication that passes the user\’s user group memberships to the FortiGate.

Reference: https://fortinetweb.s3.amazonaws.com/docs.fortinet.com/v2/attachments/b92a67f9-73a6-11ea9384-00505692583a/FortiWiFi_and_FortiAP-6.4.2-Configuration_Guide.pdf


Question 9:

Where in the controller interface can you find a wireless client\’s upstream and downstream link rates?

A. On the AP CLI, using the cw_diag ksta command

B. On the controller CLI, using the diag wireless-controller wlac -d sta command

C. On the AP CLI, using the cw_diag -d sta command

D. On the controller CLI, using the WiFi Client monitor

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which administrative access method must be enabled on a FortiGate interface to allow APs to connect and function?

A. Security Fabric

B. SSH

C. HTTPS

D. FortiTelemetry

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.2.9/cookbook/788897/configuring-the-rootfortigate-and-downstream-fortigates


Question 11:

You are investigating a wireless performance issue and you are trying to audit the neighboring APs in the PF environment. You review the Rogue APs widget on the GUI but it is empty, despite the known presence of other APs.

Which configuration change will allow neighboring APs to be successfully detected?

A. Enable Locate WiFi clients when not connected in the relevant AP profiles.

B. Enable Monitor channel utilization on the relevant AP profiles.

C. Ensure that all allowed channels are enabled for the AP radios.

D. Enable Radio resource provisioning on the relevant AP profiles.

Correct Answer: D

The ARRP (Automatic Radio Resource Provisioning) profile improves upon DARRP (Distributed Automatic Radio Resource Provisioning) by allowing more factors to be considered to optimize channel selection among FortiAPs. DARRP uses the neighbor APs channels and signal strength collected from the background scan for channel selection.

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.4.0/new-features/228374/add-arrp-profile-forwireless-controller-6-4-2


Question 12:

Which two roles does FortiPresence analytics assist in generating presence reports? (Choose two.)

A. Gathering details about on site visitors

B. Predicting the number of guest users visiting on-site

C. Comparing current data with historical records

D. Reporting potential threats by guests on site

Correct Answer: AB


Question 13:

What type of design model does FortiPlanner use in wireless design project?

A. Architectural model

B. Predictive model

C. Analytical model

D. Integration model

Correct Answer: A

FortiPlanner will look familiar to anyone who has used architectural or home design software. Reference: http://en.hackdig.com/?7883.htm


Question 14:

As standard best practice, which configuration should be performed before configuring FortiAPs using a FortiGate wireless controller?

A. Create wireless LAN specific policies

B. Preauthorize APs

C. Create a custom AP profile

D. Set the wireless controller country setting

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortiap/6.4.1/fortiwifi-and-fortiap-configuration-guide/547298/ complex-wireless-network-example


Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit.

What does the asterisk (*) symbol beside the channel mean?

A. Indicates channels that can be used only when Radio Resource Provisioning is enabled

B. Indicates channels that cannot be used because of regulatory channel restrictions

C. Indicates channels that will be scanned by the Wireless Intrusion Detection System (WIDS)

D. Indicates channels that are subject to dynamic frequency selection (DFS) regulations

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

What should be done before releasing a transport request in the development system?

A. Unit testing

B. Release of all tasks inside the transport request

C. Information of system administration about the released tasks

D. Deletion of tasks inside the transport request

Correct Answer: AB


Question 2:

Which Remote Function Call procedures does an SAP system provide? (More than one answers are true)

A. ReflexiveRFC

B. Transactional RFC

C. Queued RFC

D. DirectRFC

E. Synchronous RFC

F. Looped RFC

Correct Answer: BCE


Question 3:

Which of the following are existing variants of SAP GUI? (Choose three)

A. SAP GUI for Linux

B. SAP GUI for Windows

C. SAP GUI for Java

D. SAP GUI for HTML

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 4:

What are the tools that TMS provides various tools with which you can monitor transport activities in your transport domain? Which statements are correct? (More than one answers are true]

A. RFC connection test

B. Import monitor

C. Transport control program check

D. Import queue consistency check

E. Transport directory check

Correct Answer: BD


Question 5:

The SAP Web Dispatcher is delivered with Central Services (enqueue service and message service). In the standard installation, you will find this in the directory (Please choose one correct answer)

A. /usr/sap//SCS01/trans

B. /usr/sap//SCS01/run

C. /usr/sap//SCS01/exe.

D. /usr/sap//SCS01/work.

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

The client export performed in the source system exports the client data this export process will generate data files at the operating system level. (More than one answers are true)

A. Client-specific data

B. Client-independent data

C. RO contains

D. SAPscript texts

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

tp commands are executed in the transport subdirectory (Please choose one correct answer)

A. Bin

B. log

C. BUFFER

D. EPS

E. COFILES

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

You are maintaining User Management Engine (UME) principles using the Identity Management tool of an AS Java- based SAP system.

To which of the following can you directly assign a UME group?

There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. JEE security roles

B. UME actions

C. Java users

D. UME roles

Correct Answer: CD


Question 9:

Which user in SAP HANA are internal users within the SAP HANA database and cannot log on from outside?

A. SYSTEM user

B. Technical users

C. Users

D. Application-specific technical users

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Which of the following statements regarding the monitoring of an AS ABAP Java system are true, when you are using a separate central monitoring system? Please choose the correct answer

A. For monitoring an AS ABAP Java-based SAP system, you will use the agent SAPCCMSR for monitoring the AS Java.

B. The central monitoring system must be of a higher SAP release of the monitored SAP system.

C. Central monitoring of AS ABAP Java-based SAP systems can only be carried out using a separate AS ABAP Java-based SAP system.

D. The central monitoring system must have the System ID “CEN”.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which Typical Access Technology will use SAP Business ByDesign? Please choose one correct answer

A. SAP GUI for Windows (GUI = Graphical User Interface)

B. SAP NetWeaver Business Client

C. Browser-based interface (different browsers possible)

D. Browser-based interface (different browsers possible) BEx Analyzer (additionally requires Excel on the front-end)

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which Typical Access Technology will use SAP NetWeaver Bl 7.0 ? Please choose one correct answer

A. Browser-based interface (different browsers possible) BEx Analyzer (additionally requires Excel on the front-end)

B. Browser-based interface (different browsers possible)

C. SAP NetWeaver Business Client

D. SAP GUI for Windows (GUI = Graphical User Interface)

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

The message service performs the following tasks in the Java cluster:(More than one answers are true)

A. Guaranteed message transmission

B. The applications can lock objects are release locks again.

C. Communication between different services

D. Forwarding of messages and requests to all participants (broadcast)

E. Support for message server failover

F. It manages the lock table in the main memory and receives requests for setting or releasing 1 locks.

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 14:

Which tools in the SAP NetWeaver AS 7.00 ABAP and Java Stack are responsible for the registration process in the System Landscape Directory (SLD)? There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. The whole mechanism to register an ABAP based SAP system is event triggered. Once a change in the configuration happens, a background job informs the SLD.

B. The transaction RZ21 allows the configuration of the SLD connection.

C. SAP systems based on AS Java can register to the SLD using the SLD Data Supplier Service in Visual Administrator.

D. The main ABAP transaction to inform the SLD is RZ70. The SAP gateway is involved.

E. SAP systems based on AS Java cannot register to the SLD.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 15:

What types of monitors ore there in the SAP system? (More than one answers are true)

A. Self-Repairing monitors

B. Statistical monitors

C. Ruled monitors

D. Static monitors

E. Rule-based monitors

Correct Answer: CD


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Question 1:

Click on the exhibit below.

The following VPLS services and SAPs have been configured. Which of the following statements is true?

A. All untagged frames will be dropped.

B. The source MAC address of a frame with a top tag of 200 and bottom tag of 300 will be populated in VPLS 3.

C. All frames with more than one tag will be dropped.

D. The source MAC address of a frame with a single tag of 500 will be populated in VPLS 1.

E. The source MAC address of a frame with a top tag of 100 will be populated in VPLS 2.

Correct Answer: E


Question 2:

When spanning tree is enabled within a VPLS service and the STP mode is 802.1 D 2004 what happens if a PVST BPDU is received on a SAP?

A. Spanning tree will be disabled on the SAP that the PVST BPDU was received on.

B. The SAP that the PVST BPDU was received on will be disabled to prevent loops.

C. The spanning tree encapsulation will be dynamically changed to PVST on the SAP the PVST BPDU was received on.

D. The PVST BPDU will be ignored and 802.1D 2004 BPDUs will continue to be transmitted on the SAP.

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

In RSTP, an alternate port is on the same switch as a designated Port.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Two management VPLSs have been created. mVPLS 1 and mVPLS 2. Two user VPLS services exist. uVPLS 10 and uVPLS 20. What command can be used to determine which management VPLS is managing uVPLS 10?

A. show stp 10

B. show service vpls 1 stp

C. show service id 10 stp

D. show service id 1 stp or show service id 2 stp

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Click on the exhibit below.

The MDU attached to this PE has been configured with active/standby SDP\’s configuration option has been configured for the PE to recognize that this SDP is in standby mode?

A. On the PE the endpoint has been configured with “supress-standby-signalling”

B. On the PE the endpoint has been configured with “no supress-standby-signalling”

C. On the MDU the endpoint has been configured with “supress-standby-signalling”

D. On the MDU the endpoint has been configured with “no supress-standby-signalling1

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

To reduce the amount of flooding between PE devices which of the following steps should be taken?

A. Configure the local age timer to be larger.

B. Configure the local age timer to be lower.

C. Configure the remote age timer to be larger.

D. Configure the remote age to be lower.

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Click on the exhibit below.

Which ports will become root ports? (Choose 3)

A. Bridge B 1/1/3

B. Bridge B 1/1/2

C. Bridge C 1/1/2

D. Bridge C 2/1/1

E. Bridge D 1/1/1

F. Bridge D 1/1/3

G. Bridge E 1/1/1

H. Bridge E 1/1/3

Correct Answer: BDF


Question 8:

Which of the following describes the setting of the l-SID on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

A. The I-SID is set to 0 by default and is only used for interop purposes. The receiving PE uses the service label to determine the I-VPLS.

B. There is no default value. The I-SID must always be explicitly configured

C. The I-SID is set to the service-id, unless the service-id is larger than a 24 bit value. In this case the I-SID must be explicitly configured.

D. The I-SID is always set to the service-id by default.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

The operation of a VPLS can be best described by which of the following statements?

A. A frame should be sent to the PE that connects to the target site whenever possible.

B. A frame should be flooded as little as possible.

C. Customer frames should be switched based on the destination MAC address.

D. All of the above.

E. Only (a) and (b) are true.

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Click on the exhibit below.

CE-A sends frames with 2 tags. If the SAP on PE-A is “sap 1/1/1:1 .*” and the SAP on PE-B is “sap 1/1/1:100.200” how many tags will there be on the frame when it egresses from the SAP on PE-B?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Click on the exhibit below.

Which port will become the alternate port?

A. Bridge B 1/1/3

B. Bridge B 1/1/2

C. Bridge C 1/1/2

D. Bridge C 2/1/1

E. Bridge D 1/1/1

F. Bridge D 1/1/3

G. Bridge E 1/1/1

H. Bridge E 1/1/3

Correct Answer: A