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Pass Guarantee NS0-101 Exam By Taking New NS0-101 VCE And PDF Braindumps

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Question 1:

What are three benefits of consolidating a Windows file serving environment on NetApp? (Choose three.)

A. The number of file servers is reduced.

B. Regulatory compliance is achieved.

C. Administrators can focus on higher value tasks.

D. The need for support from application vendors is reduced.

E. It provides quick recovery and reduced downtime.

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 2:

NetApp corporate pitch states that NetAPP brings which benefit to the complex world of enterprise data management?

A. eliminates risk in an enterprise environment

B. has lowest cost per TB

C. provides unmatched simplicity

D. completely removes complexity

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

In addition to selling the hardware and software for a NetApp solution, which NetApp Global Service should you include?

A. SupportEdge

B. ConsultingEdge

C. CustomerEdge

D. PartnerEdge

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Thin provisioning, based on NetApp FlexVol technology, is a storage allocation-on-demand functionality. Which three benefits does it provide to customers? (Choose three.)

A. improved application performance

B. reduced capital expenses for software

C. improved storage utilization

D. reduced capital expenses for storage

E. simplified storage capacity planning

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 5:

Which three activities can customers perform on the NetApp NOW self-service support Web site? (Choose three.)

A. register NetApp products

B. order software

C. download software

D. contact a local sales representative or reseller

E. verify service contracts

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 6:

What benefit does Advanced Single Instance Storage (A-SIS) provide the customer?

A. significantly faster backups

B. reduced storage requirements

C. less bandwidth required for backup to tape

D. faster application processing.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which three benefits is a customer likely to derive when using the NetApp SnapManager for Exchange solution in their messaging environment? (Choose three.)

A. virus-free email and attachments

B. recovery in minutes

C. classified and categorized email

D. simplified management with automated backups

E. quicker and easier storage provisioning

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 8:

Which publication contains detailed pricing and configuration information on new products introduced by NetApp?

A. product bulletin

B. Tech OnTap newsletter

C. product performance report

D. Spotlight Presentation

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

What are two benefits of using NetApp Protection Manager? (Choose two.)

A. centralized management of multiple NetApp devices

B. simplified management for D2D backup and restore

C. simplified management for data replication

D. centralized chargeback reporting

Correct Answer: BC


Question 10:

A Windows storage consolidation objection you might encounter is that Microsoft provides only limited support for Windows when NetApp is involved. What is the most appropriate response to this objection?

A. Microsoft and NetApp provide joint support through an OEM Premier Support Agreement.

B. NetApp unified storage enables content and/or Write Once Read Many (WORM) storage on any NetApp system allowing Exchange to be more efficient.

C. NetApp and Microsoft have a licensing agreement wherein Microsoft shares Windows communication protocols for data storage.

D. NetApp experience in large-scale enterprise deployments has earned the trust of thousands of enterprise customers.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

What differentiates NetApp from its competition? (Choose two.)

A. NetApp storage systems share a single architecture across the product line.

B. Snapshot technology allows customers to back up to tape.

C. NetApp supports Fibre Channel and Serial ATA disks in the same array.

D. Unique features such as RAID-DP and thin provisioning are standard.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 12:

Which two benefits does DataFort provide customers? (Choose two.)

A. secure virus scanning

B. transparent data encryption

C. application data integrity

D. deployment with no application changes

E. secure data classification

Correct Answer: BD


Question 13:

Which NetApp Manageability Software Family suite provides comprehensive infrastructure management?

A. Server Suite

B. Storage Suite

C. Data Suite

D. Application Suite

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

A customer is experiencing both explosive growth of e-mail and increasing demands around compliance. What should the preferred integrated solution for this customer include? (Choose two.)

A. Symantec Enterprise Vault

B. NetApp SnapLock

C. Netbackup Vault

D. NetApp SnapVault

Correct Answer: AB


Question 15:

Which service is a fixed-scope service that enables customers to take their newly-installed system to a production-ready state?

A. ConsultingEdge Services

B. Data Assessment Services

C. Rapid Deployment Services

D. SupportEdge Premium

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

A SysOps administrator is creating two AWS CloudFormation templates. The first template will create a VPC with associated resources, such as subnets, route tables, and an internet gateway. The second template will deploy application resources within the VPC that was created by the first template. The second template should refer to the resources created by the first template.

How can this be accomplished with the LEAST amount of administrative effort?

A. Add an export field to the outputs of the first template and import the values in the second template.

B. Create a custom resource that queries the stack created by the first template and retrieves the required values.

C. Create a mapping in the first template that is referenced by the second template.

D. Input the names of resources in the first template and refer to those names in the second template as a parameter.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

A company has deployed a web application in a VPC that has subnets in three Availability Zones. The company launches three Amazon EC2 instances from an EC2 Auto Scaling group behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB).

A SysOps administrator notices that two of the EC2 instances are in the same Availability Zone, rather than being distributed evenly across all three Availability Zones. There are no errors in the Auto Scaling group\’s activity history.

What is the MOST likely reason for the unexpected placement of EC2 instances?

A. One Availability Zone did not have sufficient capacity for the requested EC2 instance type.

B. The ALB was configured for only two Availability Zones.

C. The Auto Scaling group was configured for only two Availability Zones.

D. Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling randomly placed the instances in Availability Zones.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

A company is running an application on premises and wants to use AWS for data backup. All of the data must be available locally. The backup application can write only to block-based storage that is compatible with the Portable Operating System Interface (POSIX).

Which backup solution will meet these requirements?

A. Configure the backup software to use Amazon S3 as the target for the data backups.

B. Configure the backup software to use Amazon S3 Glacier as the target for the data backups.

C. Use AWS Storage Gateway, and configure it to use gateway-cached volumes.

D. Use AWS Storage Gateway, and configure it to use gateway-stored volumes.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

A company asks a SysOps administrator to ensure that AWS CloudTrail files are not tampered with after they are created. Currently, the company uses AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) to restrict access to specific trails. The company\’s security team needs the ability to trace the integrity of each file.

What is the MOST operationally efficient solution that meets these requirements?

A. Create an Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule that invokes an AWS Lambda function when a new file is delivered. Configure the Lambda function to compute an MD5 hash check on the file and store the result in an Amazon DynamoDB table. The security team can use the values that are stored in DynamoDB to verify the integrity of the delivered files.

B. Create an AWS Lambda function that is invoked each time a new file is delivered to the CloudTrail bucket. Configure the Lambda function to compute an MD5 hash check on the file and store the result as a tag in an Amazon 53 object. The security team can use the information in the tag to verify the integrity of the delivered files.

C. Enable the CloudTrail file integrity feature on an Amazon S3 bucket. Create an IAM policy that grants the security team access to the file integrity logs that are stored in the S3 bucket.

D. Enable the CloudTrail file integrity feature on the trail. The security team can use the digest file that is created by CloudTrail to verify the integrity of the delivered files.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

A company has an Amazon RDS DB instance. The company wants to implement a caching service while maintaining high availability.

Which combination of actions will meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Add Auto Discovery to the data store.

B. Create an Amazon ElastiCache for Memcached data store.

C. Create an Amazon ElastiCache for Redis data store.

D. Enable Multi-AZ for the data store.

E. Enable Multi-threading for the data store.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 6:

An existing, deployed solution uses Amazon EC2 instances with Amazon EBS General Purpose SSD volumes, an Amazon RDS PostgreSQL database, an Amazon EFS file system, and static objects stored in an Amazon S3 bucket. The Security team now mandates that at-rest encryption be turned on immediately for all aspects of the application, without creating new resources and without any downtime.

To satisfy the requirements, which one of these services can the SysOps administrator enable at-rest encryption on?

A. EBS General Purpose SSD volumes

B. RDS PostgreSQL database

C. Amazon EFS file systems

D. S3 objects within a bucket

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

A manufacturing company uses an Amazon RDS DB instance to store inventory of all stock items. The company maintains several AWS Lambda functions that interact with the database to add, update, and delete items. The Lambda functions use hardcoded credentials to connect to the database.

A SysOps administrator must ensure that the database credentials are never stored in plaintext and that the password is rotated every 30 days.

Which solution will meet these requirements in the MOST operationally efficient manner?

A. Store the database password as an environment variable for each Lambda function. Create a new Lambda function that is named PasswordRotate. Use Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) to schedule the PasswordRotate function every 30 days to change the database password and update the environment variable for each Lambda function.

B. Use AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) to encrypt the database password and to store the encrypted password as an environment variable for each Lambda function. Grant each Lambda function access to the KMS key so that the database password can be decrypted when required. Create a new Lambda function that is named PasswordRotate to change the password every 30 days.

C. Use AWS Secrets Manager to store credentials for the database. Create a Secrets Manager secret and select the database so that Secrets Manager will use a Lambda function to update the database password automatically. Specify an automatic rotation schedule of 30 days. Update each Lambda function to access the database password from Secrets Manager.

D. Use AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store to create a secure string to store credentials for the database. Create a new Lambda function called PasswordRotate. Use Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) to schedule the PasswordRotate function every 30 days to change the database password and to update the secret within Parameter Store. Update each Lambda function to access the database password from Parameter Store.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

A company hosts its website in the us-east-1 Region. The company is preparing to deploy its website into the eu-central-1 Region. Website visitors who are located in Europe should access the website that is hosted in eu-central-1. All other visitors access the website that is hosted in us-east-1. The company uses Amazon Route 53 to manage the website\’s DNS records.

Which routing policy should a SysOps administrator apply to the Route 53 record set to meet these requirements?

A. Geolocation routing policy

B. Geoproximity routing policy

C. Latency routing policy

D. Multivalue answer routing policy

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

A company is running a website on Amazon EC2 instances that are in an Auto Scaling group. When the website traffic increases, additional instances take several minutes to become available because of a long-running user data script that installs software. A SysOps administrator must decrease the time that is required for new instances to become available.

Which action should the SysOps administrator take to meet this requirement?

A. Reduce the scaling thresholds so that instances are added before traffic increases.

B. Purchase Reserved Instances to cover 100% of the maximum capacity of the Auto Scaling group.

C. Update the Auto Scaling group to launch instances that have a storage optimized instance type.

D. Use EC2 Image Builder to prepare an Amazon Machine Image (AMI) that has pre-installed software.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

A company needs to restrict access to an Amazon S3 bucket to Amazon EC2 instances in a VPC only. All traffic must be over the AWS private network. What actions should the SysOps administrator take to meet these requirements?

A. Create a VPC endpoint for the S3 bucket, and create an IAM policy that conditionally limits all S3 actions on the bucket to the VPC endpoint as the source.

B. Create a VPC endpoint for the S3 bucket, and create an S3 bucket policy that conditionally limits all S3 actions on the bucket to the VPC endpoint as the source.

C. Create a service-linked role for Amazon EC2 that allows the EC2 instances to interact directly with Amazon S3, and attach an IAM policy to the role that allows the EC2 instances full access to the S3 bucket.

D. Create a NAT gateway in the VPC, and modify the VPC route table to route all traffic destined for Amazon S3 through the NAT gateway.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

A SysOps administrator notices a scale-up event for an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group. Amazon CloudWatch shows a spike in the RequestCount metric for the associated Application Load Balancer. The administrator would like to know the IP addresses for the source of the requests.

Where can the administrator find this information?

A. Auto Scaling logs

B. AWS CloudTrail logs

C. EC2 instance logs

D. Elastic Load Balancer access logs

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

A company is using an Amazon Aurora MySQL DB cluster that has point-in-time recovery, backtracking, and automatic backup enabled. A SysOps administrator needs to be able to roll back the DB cluster to a specific recovery point within the previous 72 hours. Restores must be completed in the same production DB cluster.

Which solution will meet these requirements?

A. Create an Aurora Replica. Promote the replica to replace the primary DB instance.

B. Create an AWS Lambda function to restore an automatic backup to the existing DB cluster.

C. Use backtracking to rewind the existing DB cluster to the desired recovery point.

D. Use point-in-time recovery to restore the existing DB cluster to the desired recovery point.

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

A company is running a flash sale on its website. The website is hosted on burstable performance Amazon EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group. The Auto Scaling group is configured to launch instances when the CPU utilization is above

70%.

A couple of hours into the sale, users report slow load times and error messages for refused connections. A SysOps administrator reviews Amazon CloudWatch metrics and notices that the CPU utilization is at 20% across the entire fleet of

instances.

The SysOps administrator must restore the website\’s functionality without making changes to the network infrastructure. Which solution will meet these requirements?

A. Activate unlimited mode for the instances in the Auto Scaling group.

B. Implement an Amazon CloudFront distribution to offload the traffic from the Auto Scaling group.

C. Move the website to a different AWS Region that is closer to the users.

D. Reduce the desired size of the Auto Scaling group to artificially increase CPU average utilization.

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

A company uses Amazon Elasticsearch Service (Amazon ES) to analyze sales and customer usage data. Members of the company\’s geographically dispersed sales team are traveling. They need to log in to Kibana by using their existing corporate credentials that are stored in Active Directory. The company has deployed Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to enable authentication to cloud services.

Which solution will meet these requirements?

A. Configure Active Directory as an authentication provider in Amazon ES. Add the Active Directory server\’s domain name to Amazon ES. Configure Kibana to use Amazon ES authentication.

B. Deploy an Amazon Cognito user pool. Configure Active Directory as an external identity provider for the user pool. Enable Amazon Cognito authentication for Kibana on Amazon ES.

C. Enable Active Directory user authentication in Kibana. Create an IP-based custom domain access policy in Amazon ES that includes the Active Directory server\’s IP address.

D. Establish a trust relationship with Kibana on the Active Directory server. Enable Active Directory user authentication in Kibana. Add the Active Directory server\’s IP address to Kibana.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

An Amazon EC2 instance is running an application that uses Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queues. A SysOps administrator must ensure that the application can read, write, and delete messages from the SQS queues. Which solution will meet these requirements in the MOST secure manner?

A. Create an IAM user with an IAM policy that allows the sqs:SendMessage permission, the sqs:ReceiveMessage permission, and the sqs:DeleteMessage permission to the appropriate queues. Embed the IAM user\’s credentials in the application\’s configuration.

B. Create an IAM user with an IAM policy that allows the sqs:SendMessage permission, the sqs:ReceiveMessage permission, and the sqs:DeleteMessage permission to the appropriate queues. Export the IAM user\’s access key and secret access key as environment variables on the EC2 instance.

C. Create and associate an IAM role that allows EC2 instances to call AWS services. Attach an IAM policy to the role that allows sqs:* permissions to the appropriate queues.

D. Create and associate an IAM role that allows EC2 instances to call AWS services. Attach an IAM policy to the role that allows the sqs:SendMessage permission, the sqs:ReceiveMessage permission, and the sqs:DeleteMessage permission to the appropriate queues.

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

Today\’s spot value date is the 30th of June. What is the maturity date of a 2-month EUR deposit deal today? Assume no bank holidays.

A. 27th August

B. 30th August

C. 31st August

D. 1 September

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

How many GBP would you have to invest at 0.55% to be repaid GBP 2,000,000.00 (principal plus interest) in 90 days?

A. GBP 1,997,253.78

B. GBP 1,997,291.34

C. GBP 1,997,287.67

D. GBP 1,997,250.00

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

What is the maximum maturity of an unsecured USCP?

A. One year

B. 270 days

C. 183 days

D. 5 years

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

What happens when a coupon is paid on bond collateral during the term of a classic repo?

A. Nothing

B. A margin call is triggered on the seller

C. A manufactured payment is made to the seller

D. Equivalent value plus reinvestment income is deducted from the repurchase price

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

You have taken 3-month (92 days) deposits of CAD 12,000,000.00 at 1.10% and CAD 6,000,000.00 at 1.04%. Minutes later, you quote 3-month CAD 1.09-14% to another bank. The other dealer takes the CAD 18,000,000.00 at your quoted price. What is your profit or loss on this deal?

A. CAD 2,722.19

B. CAD 460.00

C. CAD 3,220.00

D. CAD 2,760.00

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

The tom/next GC repo rate for German government bonds is quoted to you at 1.75-80%. As collateral, you sell EUR 10,000,000.00 nominal of the 5.25% Bund July 2012, which is worth EUR 11,260,000.00, with no initial margin. The Repurchase Price is:

A. EUR 10,000,500.00

B. EUR 10,000,486.11

C. EUR 11,260,563.00

D. EUR 11,260,547.36

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

The tom/next GC repo rate for German government bonds is quoted to you at 1.75-80%. As collateral, you sell EUR 10,000,000.00 million nominal of the 5.25% Bund July 2012, which is worth EUR 11,260,000.00. If you have to give an initial margin of 2%, the Repurchase Price is:

A. EUR 11,035,336.41

B. EUR 11,035,351.74

C. EUR 11,039,752.32

D. EUR 11,039,767.65

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

A bond is trading 50 basis points special for 1 week, while the 1-week GC repo rate is 3.25%. If you held GBP 10,500,000.00 of this bond, what would be the cost of borrowing against it in the repo market?

A. GBP 7,551.37

B. GBP 6,544.52

C. GBP 5,537.67

D. GBP 1,006.85

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

If EUR/USD is quoted to you as 1.3050-53, does this price represent?

A. The number of EUR per USD

B. The number of USD per EUR

C. Depends on whether the price is being quoted in Europe or the US

D. Depends on whether the price is being quoted interbank or to a customer

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

The seller of a EUR/RUB NDF could be:

A. a potential buyer of EUR against RUB

B. speculating on an appreciation of the Russian Rouble

C. expecting rising EUR/RUB exchange rates

D. a seller of Russian Rouble

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Are the forward points significantly affected by changes in the spot rate?

A. Never

B. For very large movements and longer terms

C. Always

D. Spot is the principal influence

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Which of the following CHF/JPY quotes that you have received is the best rate for you to buy CHF?

A. 105.80

B. 105.75

C. 105.70

D. 105.85

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

You have quoted spot USD/CHF at 0.9423-26. Your customer says “I take 5”. What does he mean?

A. He buys CHF 5,000,000.00 at 0.9423

B. He buys CHF 5,000,000.00 at 0.9426

C. He buys USD 5,000,000.00 at 0.9423

D. He buys USD 5,000,000.00 at 0.9426

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Clients of a voice-broker quote EUR/USD at 1.3556-61, 1.3559-62, 1.3557-63 and 1.3555-59.

What will be the broker\’s price?

A. 1.3559 choice

B. 1.3555-63

C. 1.3559-62

D. 1.3556-59

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

You quote a customer a spot cable 1.6050-55 in USD 3,000,000.00. If they sell USD to you, how much GBP will you be short of?

A. 4,816,500.00

B. 1,869,158.88

C. 1,868,57677

D. 4,815,000.00

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

How should a DLP administrator change a policy so that it retains the original file when an endpoint incident has detected a “copy to USB device” operation?

A. Add a “Limit Incident Data Retention” response rule with “Retain Original Message” option selected.

B. Modify the agent config.db to include the file

C. Modify the “Endpoint_Retain_Files.int” setting in the Endpoint server configuration

D. Modify the agent configuration and select the option “Retain Original Files”

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Which two Infrastructure-as-a-Service providers are supported for hosting Cloud Prevent for Office 365? (Choose two.)

A. Any customer-hosted private cloud

B. Amazon Web Services

C. ATandT

D. Verizon

E. Rackspace

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://symwisedownload.symantec.com//resources/sites/SYMWISE/content/live/DOCUMENTATION/8000/DOC8244/en_US/Symantec_DLP_15.0_Cloud_Prevent_O365.pdf? __gda__=1554430310_584ffada3918e15ced8b6483a2bfb6fb (14)


Question 3:

Which detection method depends on “training sets”?

A. Form Recognition

B. Vector Machine Learning (VML)

C. Index Document Matching (IDM)

D. Exact Data Matching (EDM)

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://eval.symantec.com/mktginfo/enterprise/white_papers/b-dlp_machine_learning.WP_en-us.pdf


Question 4:

Which two detection technology options run on the DLP agent? (Choose two.)

A. Optical Character Recognition (OCR)

B. Described Content Matching (DCM)

C. Directory Group Matching (DGM)

D. Form Recognition

E. Indexed Document Matching (IDM)

Correct Answer: BE


Question 5:

A divisional executive requests a report of all incidents generated by a particular region, summarized by department. What does the DLP administrator need to configure to generate this report?

A. Custom attributes

B. Status attributes

C. Sender attributes

D. User attributes

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A DLP administrator needs to stop the PacketCapture process on a detection server. Upon inspection of the Server Detail page, the administrator discovers that all processes are missing from the display. What are the processes missing from the Server Detail page display?

A. The Display Process Control setting on the Advanced Settings page is disabled.

B. The Advanced Process Control setting on the System Settings page is deselected.

C. The detection server Display Control Process option is disabled on the Server Detail page.

D. The detection server PacketCapture process is displayed on the Server Overview page.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://support.symantec.com/content/unifiedweb/en_US/article.TECH220250.html


Question 7:

When managing an Endpoint Discover scan, a DLP administrator notices some endpoint computers are NOT completing their scans. When does the DLP agent stop scanning?

A. When the agent sends a report within the “Scan Idle Timeout” period

B. When the endpoint computer is rebooted and the agent is started

C. When the agent is unable to send a status report within the “Scan Idle Timeout” period

D. When the agent sends a report immediately after the “Scan Idle Timeout” period

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which server target uses the “Automated Incident Remediation Tracking” feature in Symantec DLP?

A. Exchange

B. File System

C. Lotus Notes

D. SharePoint

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://help.symantec.com/cs/DLP15.0/DLP/v83981880_v120691346/Troubleshooting-automated-incident-remediation-tracking?locale=EN_US


Question 9:

An administrator is unable to log in to the Enforce management console as “sysadmin”. Symantec DLP is configured to use Active Directory authentication. The administrator is a member of two roles: “sysadmin” and “remediator.” How should the administrator log in to the Enforce console with the “sysadmin” role?

A. sysadmin\username

B. sysadmin\[email protected]

C. domain\username

D. username\sysadmin

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

What activity should occur during the baseline phase, according to the risk reduction model?

A. Define and build the incident response team

B. Monitor incidents and tune the policy to reduce false positives

C. Establish business metrics and begin sending reports to business unit stakeholders

D. Test policies to ensure that blocking actions minimize business process disruptions

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Which two DLP products support the new Optical Character Recognition (OCR) engine in Symantec DLP 15.0? (Choose two.)

A. Endpoint Prevent

B. Cloud Service for Email

C. Network Prevent for Email

D. Network Discover

E. Cloud Detection Service

Correct Answer: BC


Question 12:

Which two actions are available for a “Network Prevent: Remove HTTP/HTTPS content” response rule when the content is unable to be removed? (Choose two.)

A. Allow the content to be posted

B. Remove the content through FlexResponse

C. Block the content before posting

D. Encrypt the content before posting

E. Redirect the content to an alternative destination

Correct Answer: AE


Question 13:

Which two factors are common sources of data leakage where the main actor is well-meaning insider? (Choose two.)

A. An absence of a trained incident response team

B. A disgruntled employee for a job with a competitor

C. Merger and Acquisition activities

D. Lack of training and awareness

E. Broken business processes

Correct Answer: BD


Question 14:

Which option is an accurate use case for Information Centric Encryption (ICE)?

A. The ICE utility encrypts files matching DLP policy being copied from network share through use of encryption keys.

B. The ICE utility encrypts files matching DLP policy being copied to removable storage through use of encryption keys.

C. The ICE utility encrypts files matching DLP policy being copied to removable storage on an endpoint use of certificates.

D. The ICE utility encrypts files matching DLP policy being copied from network share through use of certificates

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://help.symantec.com/cs/ICE1.0/ICE/v126756321_v120576779/Using-ICE-with-Symantec-Data-Loss-Preventionabout_dlp?locale=EN_US


Question 15:

A DLP administrator is attempting to add a new Network Discover detection server from the Enforce management console. However, the only available options are Network Monitor and Endpoint servers. What should the administrator do to make the Network Discover option available?

A. Restart the Symantec DLP Controller service

B. Apply a new software license file from the Enforce console

C. Install a new Network Discover detection server

D. Restart the Vontu Monitor Service

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Given the example widget configuration definition:

Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. You can reference the configuration in the widget JavaScript as widget.enabled()

B. The widget configuration setting does not have a default value

C. You can reference the configuration in the widget JavaScript as site.enabled()

D. The value can be either true or false

E. The widget configuration setting will appear as a dropdown

Correct Answer: DE


Question 2:

Given the example snippet of custom widget JavaScript:

What are two correct statements about this code? (Choose two.)

A. Creates a new PAGE_CHANGED topic available for subscription

B. Uses the PubSub library to publish to a topic

C. Changes the page when the inline function runs

D. Runs the inline function when the subscribed event fires

E. Uses the PubSub library to subscribe to a topic

Correct Answer: AB


Question 3:

The design of a particular B2B storefront implementation has three supported locales.

When configuring the Profile Navigation

Correct Answer: B

Three layouts to the Profile Navigation


Question 4:

Given this widget JavaScript snippet using the CCRestClient library:

What is the URL of the created request to Commerce Cloud?

A. GET /ccstore/v1/products

B. GET /ccstore/v1/products/xprod2119

C. POST /ccstore/v1/products

D. PUT /ccstore/v1/products/xprod2119

E. GET/ccstore/v1/products?getProduct=xprod2119

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Your customer has a B2B Storefront instance designed to have three English language sites: North America, European Union, and Asia.

What two components will the storefront developers need to configure to support one or more sites? (Choose two.)

A. The settings for each layout to specify one or more sites valid for that layout

B. Associated component text snippets that are valid for each site

C. The layout components to include branding, images, and page content that are specific for the site

D. The profile Navigation

Correct Answer: CD


Question 6:

The Profile Navigation ?Account Shoppers widget instance settings specifies the storefront role of buyer for the Account Address Book.

Note that the storefront role for the /accountaddressbook URL is specified as buyer.

Which configuration step is needed to allow a delegated administrator the privilege to create, edit, and delete account addresses?

A. Nothing needs to be configured. The account Addresses widget will automatically provide additional create, edit, and delete privileges for delegated administrators.

B. Modify the settings for the Account Address Book and specify the storefront role of admin.

C. The Account Addresses widget will need to be customized to perform this functionality.

D. Create an additional Account Address Book layout that allows delegated administrators the privilege to perform the tasks.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

What are two reasons to use the CC-Storage library to save data objects in local storage? (Choose two.)

A. to support browsers using private browsing mode

B. to support Firefox browsers only

C. to support Chrome browsers only

D. to support iOS devices using Safari

Correct Answer: AD


Question 8:

Which is NOT a step involved in creating widget configuration settings?

A. Define the configuration settings string resources for all supported locales

B. Update widget template and JavaScript code to use the configuration parameters as required

C. Define the configuration settings in a config.json file

D. Compile the configurations before the widget extension is uploaded

E. Add the widget configuration settings folders and files to the widget extension structure

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Given the example custom widget Javascript:

In order to employ the Cart view model, what should the custom widget\’s widget.json descriptor contain for the imports attribute?

A. The imports attribute should contain the value “user” because the cart view model belongs to the user

B. The imports attribute is only valid for global widgets and is not relevant

C. The imports attribute can be empty because the Cart view model is global

D. The imports attribute should contain the value “cart”

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

You need to display a message to a logged in shopper about a relevant promotion, based on the number of products in the cart and the total value of the items. You develop a custom widget that uses the User, Cart and Site view models as displayed in this example Javascipt:

Under what condition is the showCartMsg() function true?

A. Only when there is at least one item in the cart and the cat subtotal is less than the value of minSpend

B. When a user is logged in and there is at least one item in the cart and the cart subtotal is less than the value of minSpend

C. If either a user is logged in or there is at least one item in the cart or the cart subtotal is less than the value of minSpend

D. As long as the user is logged in; the status of the cart does not matter

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

A merchant has two country sites, US and France. The Site Base URL for the US site is www.example.com. They plan to use a subfolder to differentiate the French site\’s URL. For example, they could set it to www.example.com/france. What is a potential consequence of using the fr locate code as the subfolder for the French site\’s URL, such as www.example.com/fr, instead?

A. Commerce Cloud does not understand locale codes when used as a subfolder, leading to 404 not found messages in the shopper browser.

B. If the US site is configured to have French as an additional language, the system cannot tell if www.example.com/fr is the French site or the French translation of the English site.

C. Commerce Cloud has logic built in to avoid any confusion between subfolders and locales, editing the URL when generating the page to differentiate between the locale and the subfolder name.

D. You receive an error message on the Settings page when setting the Site Base URL to a recognized locale, preventing you from using it as the subfolder.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Which two statements describe the gateway configuration definition in the config.json file? (Choose two.)

A. The configType property must be set to the value payment

B. Valid values for the instances property are agent, preview, test, and storefront

C. No additional properties are needed to enable a payment method for scheduled orders

D. The configuration must include a property with the ID paymentMethodTypes

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E73348_01/Cloud.16-2/UsingCC/html/s2502createtheextension01.html https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/commerce-cloud/occ-developer/credit-card-payment-properties.html


Question 13:

What does a slot component reserve space in a layout to display?

A. a widget determined in real-time based on variable criteria

B. an ordered set of widgets specified in a tabular format

C. the header of footer of a page that contains configurable elements

D. a group of related widgets that constitute a composite shopper-based function

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Why is it a best practice to use the ccLink binding in your custom widgets?

A. for ensuring the correct layout is displayed

B. for ensuring a link does not cause a full page reload

C. for ensuring that your URL is correctly formatted

D. for ensuring images are sized for the current viewport

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

What are two types of assets that can be included in a storefront extension? (Choose two.)

A. Locale strings

B. REST endpoint specifications

C. Images

D. Java code

Correct Answer: AD


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Question 1:

A network administrator has discovered a low-end managed switch connoted to the company LAN. While reading about the device\’s specifications on the manufacturer\’s website, the administrator discovers the switch does not support a command line interface for administration. Which of the following remote access methods should the administrator use to log in the switch?

A. install a VNC plugin on the web Browser

B. Connect to the HTTPS management interface

C. Replace the managed switch with an unmanaged switch.

D. Establish an SSH session.

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

A company needs to be able to restore 100% of its data from any single day\’s backup. Which of the following backup types should the company use?

A. Full

B. Incremental

C. snapshot

D. Differential

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

A company\’s users have been reporting excessive latency when connecting to the Internet. The network administration team submitted a change request to upgrade all the obsolete network equipment from 100Mbps to 1Gbps and It was approved. Which of the following documentation types will be needed to measure the success or failure of the upgrade project?

A. Network performance baseline

B. Network configuration documents

C. Equipment Implementation Instructions

D. Inventory management documentation

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

A new network Technician is responsible for bringing a building onto the corporate network. The technician is not aware of the proper settings for the new switches. Which of the following should the technician reference to find these settings?

A. iDF/MDF documentation

B. Change management plan

C. Configuration baseline

D. Standard operating procedures

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

A technician needs to back up network devices to a central location to prepare for a natural disaster. Which of the following should the technician use?

A. VPN

B. TFTP

C. RDP

D. VNC

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A user has called the help desk with a problem reaching certain servers within the organization. The organization is using RFC 1819 for internal networks. The servers having trouble are configured with the following IP addresses: 192. 130.

135. 5 and 192. 130. 135. 6.

The user cannot connect to the correct servers. Which of the following explain why this is happening to the user?

A. The network has been configured with an inappropriate scheme

B. The serves are periodical/ going offline and rejecting the connection.

C. The default route in the user\’s computer points to the wrong upstream device.

D. The IPS system is flagging the traffic as suspicious and terminating the connection.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

A network administrator plans to install network connectivity at a new remote office location. The administrator is concerned about how to troubleshoot network connectivity issues and reconfigure the remote router. The technician should use:

A. an SD card with a backup configuration

B. a TFTP server on the main network for backup configurations

C. a modem using POTS.

D. a second Ethernet interface for remote access.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

A new employee is unable to access any network resources. All other users are able to access the network at 100Mbps No IP address, subnet mask or default gateway is displayed on the new employee\’s workstation The network administrator determinates all connectors using the correct standard Upon further investigation the network administrator also notices the following.

Wire map results from the user patch cable lo the patch cable connecting to the switch:

1.

Pins 5 and 7 are short

2.

The distance is 200ft (61m) Additional observations on the switch

1.

The VLAN is set correctly

2.

The port is not disabled

3.

The duplex”;speed settings are correct

4.

Port LEOs are off for that port.

5.

The port is set to untagged.

Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the new employee is having network issues?

A. Bad switchport

B. Incorrect pinout

C. Open/short

D. VLAN mismatch

E. Distance limitation

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

A technician recently installed a new wireless access point for a SOHO with the latest wireless technologies After the installation users with older laptops report their laptops no longer show the wireless network SSID, whereas users with newer equipment do not have this issue. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?

A. The passphrase was changed

B. The wireless cards do not support 802 11ac.

C. The security type has been upgraded to WPA2

D. The administrator is not broadcasting the SSID

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

A network administrator is looking for an out-of-band method for accessing the console ports of a company\’s network devices when working remotely. Which of the following can be deployed as a solution?

A. A hub

B. Abridge

C. A modem

D. A WAP

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

A network administrator is configuring a link-state routing protocol for traffic. Which of the following routing protocols should be implemented?

A. BGP

B. EIGRP

C. OSPF

D. RIPv2

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Which of the following would an organization MOST likely have employees sign before granting access to confidential data?

A. An AUP

B. A BYOD policy

C. An NDA

D. A PUA

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

A company has a DNS record for the following address: products companyXYZ. com. The company would like to add another record, sales. companyXYZ. com, which continually points to the same IP address as products companyXYZ.

com.

Which of the following DNS record would BEST accomplish this?

A. MX

B. CNAME

C. SRV

D. A

E. AAAA

F. PTR

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

A user\’s computer is having trouble reaching a certain website Other branch locations do not have any issues reaching this website, and the user can reach all other websites A technician suspects there is a failure at an upstream router under The ISPs control. Which of the following commands should the technician run to confirm this suspicion\’\’

A. tepdump

B. arp

C. traeert

D. nmp

E. route

Correct Answer: E


Question 15:

A customer has asked a technician to upgrade the wireless router to the fastest speed possible. The technician performs a site survey and notices several older devices will not be able to connect to router that operates In the 5GHz range. Which of the following options should the technician suggest to the customer?

A. 802. 11a

B. 802. 11ac

C. 802. 11b

D. 802. 11n

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

You have a requirement to dynamically assign tasks at run time based on the employee\’s title. Which three could be used to accomplish this assignment? (Choose three.)

A. Use parametric roles to map the individual parametric role assignments and then map individual users to specific titles in the workspace using extended user properties.

B. Use parametric roles to map the individual parametric role assignments and then map LDAP groups to specific titles in the workspace using extended user properties.

C. In LDAP, ensure that individual users have been given titles and, in the workspace, associate the LDAP title attribute to a parametric role.

D. Use a business rule in the human task to dynamically assign work items to specific users or an LDAP group based on employee title.

E. In the process, edit the properties of the swimlane and assign a “title” string data object in the process payload to define a parametric role.

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 2:

Which statement is true about using a data-first approach in the Web Form Designer?

A. The process must already have an object-based process variable created.

B. The human task must already have an object-based data element defined.

C. A corresponding process data object is automatically created and mapped into and out of the human task.

D. As widgets are dragged onto the form from the palette, the form\’s underlying XSD is automatically updated.

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Which two statements describe how parallel and inclusive gateways work? (Choose two.)

A. You specify conditions on outgoing sequence flows on a parallel gateway, but not on an inclusive gateway.

B. More than one outgoing path can be followed out of an inclusive gateway, but not from a parallel gateway.

C. For both types of gateways, a merge is used to wait for all tokens before proceeding.

D. You can override standard merge behavior for both types of gateways so execution can proceed when a certain percentage of tokens have arrived at the merge.

E. All conditions are evaluated in an inclusive gateway.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 4:

Which statement is accurate about verbal rules and business phrases?

A. Verbal ruled can be created in Business Process Composer, but not in BPM Studio.

B. For a particular verbal rule, conditions and actions can include derived business phrases or user- defined business phrases, but not both.

C. Derived business phrases are automatically created by using facts and globals in the rules dictionary.

D. Verbal rules must be created in a separate ruleset from general rules and decision tables.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 5:

Which human task pattern is best suited for a single approver scenario where the role is resolved through group membership? (Choose two.)

A. User

B. Group

C. Initiator

D. FYI

E. Management

Correct Answer: A

Single Approver: Use this option for a single user to act on a task. If the task is assigned to a role or group with multiple users, then one member must claim the task and act on it.

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E28280_01/user.1111/e15175/bpmug_ws_perform_tasks.htm


Question 6:

Which two statements accurately describe managing users and roles for a BPM Suite application? (Choose two.)

A. Swimlane roles are created at design time by using Process Composer or BPM Studio.

B. Application roles can be added by using WebLogic Console or WLST.

C. The organization chart structure of users is visible in Business Process Workspace.

D. You can associate an LDAP group with an application role in Business Process Workspace.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 7:

Which action enables support for virtualization through libOVD?

A. Update the order of the WebLogic authentication providers to put the LDAP providers first.

B. Use Enterprise Manager or WLST to add the virtualize=true property to the SOA Common Properties MBean.

C. Use Enterprise Manager or WLST to add the virtualize=true property to the domain level Identity Store Configuration.

D. Update the domain directory to include a valid libOVD adapter configuration file under the config/ folder.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which statement is true about how if-then rules are processed during an inferencing session?

A. Rules are evaluated in the order in which they were added to the ruleset.

B. A particular rule can be fired only once in an inferencing session.

C. The effective date set for a rule can take it out of consideration for evaluation.

D. A priority setting of 1 causes the rule to fire during each inferencing session.

E. Rules with multiple IF conditions receive higher priority during evaluation.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 9:

Which two statements are true about an auto-generated ADF task form for a human task? (Choose two.)

A. It can be customized by changing the layout and by adding and removing UI components.

B. It is created in a separate project and in a directory that you select.

C. You initiate auto-generation from the properties window for the human task activity on your model.

D. By default, it is automatically deployed when you deploy your BPM project.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 10:

Which two statements are accurate about how ADF Business Components can be used in a task flow for a human task? (Choose two.)

A. They can create and insert a new row in a database table.

B. They can invoke wildcard control flow rules in the task flow.

C. They can initialize the information displayed on a form when given an ID from the process payload.

D. They can declaratively map database information back into the process payload.

E. They can invoke task flow call activities.

Correct Answer: BE


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Question 1:

A vSphere administrator wants to deploy a VM directly from a VM template that is stored in a content library? How can the administrator accomplish this?

A. Publish the content library first.

B. Convert the VM template to OVA.

C. Use the vSphere Client.

D. Copy the VM template to a local drive.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.7/com.vmware.vsphere.vm_admin.doc/GUID-6EA309BC-9113-449C-B668-ACBB363485C3.html


Question 2:

A vSphere Administrator has multiple virtual machines running on a VMFS datastore. Which option prioritizes the disk access for the virtual machines?

A. Disk Shares

B. Disk Mode

C. Disk Type

D. Hard Disk

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

An administrator runs multiple clusters spread across multiple vCenters. The administrator needs to be able to migrate any VM to any cluster. On which two vCenter Server objects could the administrator configure EVC mode to fulfill this requirement? (Choose two.)

A. VM

B. resource pool

C. datacenter

D. cluster

E. folder

Correct Answer: AD


Question 4:

An administrator decides to implement vSphere networking using the VDS.

Which binding option should the administrator use to manage the VMs if vCenter becomes unavailable?

A. static

B. port

C. ephemeral

D. dynamic

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://kb.vmware.com/s/article/1022312


Question 5:

What is a requirement when installing ESXi 6.7?

A. NX/XD bit enabled for the CPU in the BIOS

B. minimum of 8GB of physical RAM

C. datastore for scratch partition

D. minimum of four CPU cores

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.7/com.vmware.esxi.install.doc/GUID-DEB8086A-306B-4239-BF76-E354679202FC.html


Question 6:

A vSphere administrator attempts to create a VM-VM affinity rule but is unable to locate the option in the vSpehre Client. What would cause this to happen?

A. vSphere DRS is disabled

B. vSphere DRS is set to manual

C. Admission control is not enabled

D. Affinity rules are only managed using the Host Client

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Which DCUI option determines the time frame an administrator has to log in to the ESXI Shell after enabling the service?

A. Idle Timeout

B. Availability Timeout

C. Enable SSH D. Enable ESXi Shell

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/5.5/com.vmware.vsphere.security.doc/GUID-6E1ECA4D-B617-4D42-B40B-71E4C83DEEFB.html#GUID-6E1ECA4D-B617-4D42-B40B-71E4C83DEEFB


Question 8:

Which two availability features require a VM restart for recovery? (Choose two.)

A. vSphere DPM

B. vSphere vMotion

C. vSphere Replication

D. vSphere Fault Tolerance

E. vSphere HA

Correct Answer: CE


Question 9:

What is the outcome when two affinity rules conflict?

A. VMs will continue to migrate

B. Rules are applied based on priority

C. Only one rule can be enabled

D. Random rule enablement occurs

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Which two infrastructure services are provided by the Platform Services Controller? (Choose two.)

A. Auto Deploy

B. License Service

C. vCenter Single Sign-On

D. vSphere Syslog Collector

E. vSphere Web Client

Correct Answer: BC


Question 11:

What is the maximum number of vCenter Server Appliances that can be linked together using Enhanced Linked Mode and displayed in a single inventory view?

A. 5

B. 10

C. 15

D. 20

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.7/com.vmware.vcenter.install.doc/GUID-7A90361C-E95B-4C53-A328-3DB9EE20536D.html


Question 12:

A vSphere administrator is performing a greenfield vSphere deployment with these requirements:

1.

vCenter Server sized for 100 ESXi hosts and 1000 virtual machines

2.

Each ESXi Host with 512 LUNs and 2048 paths mapped from Dell EMC XtremIO Storage Array

Which vCenter Server Appliance deployment size meets requirements?

A. Large

B. Tiny

C. Medium

D. Small

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Which two options ensure all ESXi servers are protected from unsigned code? (Choose two.)

A. VM Encryption

B. vTPM

C. UEFI Secure Boot

D. TPM

E. vSAN Encryption

Correct Answer: CD


Question 14:

What does ESXi Autoconfiguration do?

A. sets up host profiles

B. configures system network and storage devices

C. determines the number of hosts to be deployed

D. configures Auto Deploy

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which two options could the administrator use to start the vSphere Authentication Proxy Service (Choose two.)

A. vIDM

B. vSphere Client

C. ESXi Command Line

D. VAMI

E. PSC

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.7/com.vmware.vsphere.security.doc/GUID-DFA95E13-EC95-4951-B94F-6D08CCFAC188.html


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Question 1:

Directors at a client meeting report experiencing delays in delivering new features to market. They indicate that a key cause is the handoffs between development and test teams. What is a key business benefit of IBM DevOps solutions that you should tell them about?

A. IBM DevOps solutions will make all web applications run 20% faster.

B. IBM DevOps solutions will lower customer-reported defect rates.

C. IBM DevOps solutions will increase the risk associated with new customer-introduced requirements.

D. IBM DevOps solutions will dramatically reduce costs and overall time to delivery.

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

What are three main characteristics of an agent? (Select three.)

A. Runs plugin steps (scripts to perform various actions)

B. Is installed on UrbanCode server to allow communication with agent relays

C. Runs automation tasks defined by an Ant script

D. Represents the IBM UrbanCode Deploy agent software running on a server

E. Is installed on each server on which commands must be executed

Correct Answer: BCD

C, not A: Apache Ant is a command line tool that is used to automate the build and deployment of applications. This plug-in calls the Ant executable to run one or more targets defined in a specified Ant script file, and is very useful for quickly integrating legacy automation into your UrbanCode Deploy Processes. IBM UrbanCode Deploy agents include a distribution of Ant, which is used by default, but other versions can be used by providing the path to the Ant installation directory in your Process Step. B, not E: Will the agent connect to an agent relay instead of directly to the server? The default value is N. If you specify Y, you are prompted to configure the following parameters: hostname or address of the agent relay the agent will connect to agent communication port for the agent relay HTTP proxy port for the agent relay

References: https://developer.ibm.com/urbancode/plugin/ant-2/


Question 3:

How would the user interface for a FileUtils plugin be defined?

A. using JavaScript that is contained in a FileUtils.ui file, which is referenced from the plugin definition file

B. Using xml that is contained in the plugin definition file

C. Using JavaScript that is contained in the plugin definition file

D. Using xml that is contained in a FileUtils.ui file, which is referenced from the plugin definition file

Correct Answer: B

References: https://developer.ibm.com/urbancode/plugindoc/ibmucd/file-utils-plug/31-2/steps/


Question 4:

When creating a new user, an authentication realm must be defined. What are two authentication types?

A. Internal Storage and LDAP

B. OpenLDAP and Rational Authentication Method

C. External Storage and LDAP

D. OpenLDAP and Internal Storage

Correct Answer: A

The available authorization realms for the server are as follows:

*

Internal Storage

Uses internal role management. The default authorization realm (Internal Security) is of this type.

*

LDAP or Active Directory|

Uses external LDAP role management.

*

SSO

Provides single sign-on authorization.

References: https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SS4GSP_6.1.3/com.ibm.udeploy.admin.doc/topics/security_config.html


Question 5:

What is the main use of resources in IBM UrbanCode Deploy?

A. To contain actual deployment artifacts

B. To group component versions and configuration versioning into one entity

C. To contain artifacts, or files, that provide a reusable solution

D. To translate between agents (actual execution) and logical deployment targets

Correct Answer: D

A resource is a logical deployment target that typically resolves to an agent.

Note: A resource can represent an agent, agent pool, component, or an organizational entity that is used to group other resources. A component-type resource can point directly to the agent or agent pool that deploys it, or point to another

resource in a hierarchical chain of resources. If a resource is part of a hierarchy, it delegates its automation, if any, up the chain until it finds an agent.

References: https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SS4GSP_6.1.0/com.ibm.udeploy.doc/topics/resources_ch.html


Question 6:

Which statement is true about importing files into component versions from the file system?

A. Component versions can only be imported from the file system via the UCD server process over port 2776.

B. Component versions can only be imported from the file system using an agent installed on the IBM UrbanCode Deploy server.

C. Any agent listed in the system settings can be used to import component versions from the file system.

D. Any agent selected in the file import plug-in can be used to import component versions from the file system.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which three statements are true about creating new component versions? (Select three.)

A. New component versions can be created using the IBM UrbanCode Deploy client.

B. New component versions can be created when updating the application configuration.

C. New component versions can be created from the versions tab of the component.

D. New component versions can be created using an IBM UrbanCode Deploy generic process.

Correct Answer: ACD

AD: Each time a component\’s artifacts are imported into the repository, including the first time, a separate version is stored in CodeStation. Versions can be assigned automatically by IBM UrbanCode Deploy, applied manually, or come from a build server.

If the component does not import new versions automatically, you can import versions manually.

C: Step 1:

Step 2:

References:

http://www.slideshare.net/ibmrational/ucd-components (page 26)

http://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SS4GSP_6.2.2/com.ibm.udeploy.doc/topics/comp_version.html


Question 8:

What do you use to define a logical grouping of deployable that function as a single unit and contain definitions of automations and target environments?

A. Component template

B. Resource

C. Application

D. Resource template

Correct Answer: B

Component-type resources represent the components that are deployed to target environments. A resource is a logical deployment target that typically resolves to an agent and a user-defined construct that is based on the architectural model

of IBM UrbanCode Deploy.

If a resource is part of a hierarchy, it delegates its automation, if any, up the chain until it finds an agent.

In IBM UrbanCode Deploy, deployable items are combined into logical groupings called components.

Incorrect Answers:

D: A resource template is a model for a group of resources. The template contains a hierarchy of resources, groups, and agent prototypes that is a starting point for creating new resources. References: http://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SS4GSP_6.2.0/com.ibm.udeploy.doc/topics/resources_ch.html


Question 9:

A security type is a product area that can have permissions defined for it. Each security type has a set of permissions that affect how users interact with it. How many security types are available in IBM UrbanCode Deploy?

A. 13

B. 10

C. 3

D. 5

Correct Answer: D

A security type is a product area that has permissions defined for it. There are several security types predefined. They are system, application, release, deployment, status, and initiatives and changes.

Other than the Status security type, permissions are predefined.

References: http://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SS4GCC_6.2.1/com.ibm.urelease.doc/topics/security_types.html


Question 10:

Which security types are used to secure the IBM UrbanCode Deploy server?

A. Server Configuration and Web UI

B. Security UI and Application Security

C. Application Security and DevOps Security

D. UI Security and DevOps Security

Correct Answer: A

References: http://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SS4GSP_6.1.3/com.ibm.udeploy.admin.doc/topics/security_types.html


Question 11:

IBM UrbanCode Deploy (UCD) offers an integration with Chef. How does this integration work?

A. IBM UCD installs Chef solo as part of the deployment process and also allows users to execute Chef nodes.

B. IBM UCD integrates with Chef server and manages updating Chef endpoints by running scripts against the Chef server.

C. Chef server and Chef solo poll the IBM UCD repository for new artifacts to deploy, and then deploy them.

D. Chef server and Chef solo allows for the IBM UCD agent to be automatically installed on Chef endpoints.

Correct Answer: C

Incorrect Answers:

A: Set up a UCD server with the Chef plug-in installed.

To use the IBM Integration Bus cookbook with UCD, you must install the Chef plug-ins, as these are not there by default.

References: https://developer.ibm.com/integration/blog/2014/06/23/how-to-automate-ibm-integration-bus-deployments-using-ibm-urbancode-deploy-and-chef/


Question 12:

The approval process is executed when approved by which user type?

A. The user type currently configured to execute the process

B. The administrator user type

C. The user type configured for approval in the approval process being executed

D. The user type of the user created both the application processes and the component processes

Correct Answer: C

Deployment approvals are created in a process that specifies the job that needs approval and the role of the approver. When a request for approval is made, the users with the corresponding role are notified of the work item through email.

The approver has the liberty to approve or reject a deployment as well as provide comments to the decision.

References: https://developer.ibm.com/urbancode/products/urbancode-deploy/features/quality-gates-approvals/


Question 13:

What information is shown on the Settings page of the IBM UrbanCode Deploy user interface, for a specific plugin?

A. The numbers of all the versions of the plugin, which are available in a given IBM UrbanCode Deploy instance

B. The components that use one or more of the plugin\’s steps

C. The attributes for each of the plugin\’s steps

D. The configurable attributes of the plugin\’s steps

Correct Answer: A

Version numbering

On Developer Center, plug-in versions are typically shown as integers. For example, version 6. A longer version number is displayed on the Settings page in the product, and in the name of the .zip file that contains the plug-in. For example,

6.714241.

References: https://developer.ibm.com/urbancode/docs/installing-plugins-ucd/


Question 14:

What is the correct order of steps for a typical deployment configuration?

A. Define Application Process; Create component Snapshot; Map Component to Environment; Identify Resource

B. Define Component and Component Process; Define Application; Configure Environment; Identify Resource

C. Define Component; Import Version to Component; Define Application Process; Configure Environment; Map Component to Resource

D. Define Application; Map Component to Recourse; Identify Agent and Environment; Configure Component Process

Correct Answer: B

In outline, deployments are done by performing the following steps:

1.

Define Components

2.

Define Component Processes

3.

Define Application

4.

Configure Environment

5.

Identify Agent References: ftp://public.dhe.ibm.com/software/rationalsdp/documentation/product_doc/UrbanCode/uDeploy/version_4-6/uDeploy_WebHelp_4-6/content/quickstart_chapter.html


Question 15:

What are common problems and challenges that customers face concerning release and deployment?

A. Manual handoffs, disconnected environments, high costs and difficulty knowing current status

B. Low virtualization, high network latency, poor installation documentation, and requirements that are difficult to understand

C. Poorly aligned business releases and capabilities, low visibility, slow decisions and slow to adapt to changes

D. Unclear project status, low test coverage, high testing costs (e.g. MIPS use) and poor quality of applications in production

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

A customer has producton and disaster recovery VMAX3 arrays. There is limited bandwidth between the sites. The amount of data which will be replicated by usini SRDF to the disaster recovery site is sliihtly more than the available

bandwidth allows.

Which acton is needed to accommodate the customer\’s need?

A. Install an optonal compression module

B. Enable the compression license

C. Enable compression on the RA Director

D. Enable the Fast Write feature on the SRDF Group

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

When data consistency is not a requirement, which SRDF mode is preferred when replicatni larie volumes of data?

A. SRDF/DM

B. SRDF/A

C. SRDF/S

D. SRDF/CG

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

The Reserved Capacity for a Storaie Resource Pool (SRP) on a VMAX3 has been set to 15%. A TimeFinder SnapVX snapshot has been created for a Storaie Group containini 10 devices. An applicaton is actvely performini read and write I/

Os to these devices. Allocaton for the SRP reaches 85%.

What will happen to the snapshot?

A. Snapshot will fail

B. Snapshot deltas will be allocated from the Reserved Capacity

C. Snapshot will persist but new snapshot deltas cannot be created

D. Snapshot will terminate

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

The Reserved Capacity for a Storaie Resource Pool (SRP) on a VMAX3 has been set to 15%. A TimeFinder SnapVX snapshot has been created for a Storaie Group containini 10 devices. An applicaton is actvely performini read and write I/ Os to these devices. The snapshot is linked to the tariet in Copy mode. Allocaton for the SRP reaches 85%.

What will happen to the copy process?

A. Copy to the tariet will halt

B. Copy to the tariet will fail

C. Tracks required for the copy will be allocated from the Reserved Capacity

D. Copy to the tariet will contnue and complete

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

The Storaie Group containini the source volumes on a VMAX3 array is manaied by the Gold SLO. A TimeFinder SnapVX snapshot of this Storaie Group is linked to tariet volumes. The Storaie Group containini the tariet volumes is manaied by the Bronie SLO. Which SLO will be used to manaie the snapshot deltas?

A. Optmiied

B. Gold

C. Bronie

D. None

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Which SRDF remote replicaton licenses are available with VMAX3?

A. Remote Replicaton Suite and SRDF Reiistered

B. Remote Protecton Suite and Applicaton Protecton Suite

C. Remote Replicaton Suite and SRDF/Automated Replicaton

D. Remote Protecton Suite and SRDF Reiistered

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

You are plannini a miiraton from a VMAX to a new VMAX3. What will allow SRDF device pairini when the source device is confiured with an odd number of cylinders?

A. Geometry Compatble Mode

B. SRDF FAST Coordinaton

C. Data Inteirity Field

D. Mult-Cycle Mode

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

SRDF/A has been enabled between two VMAX3 arrays. Due to a loss of all RDF links, the SRDF/A session has been placed in a Transmit Idle state. What happens to cycle switchini and the delta sets?

A. Cycle switchini contnues; Transmit Delta set count irows

B. Cycle switchini stops; Capture Delta set irows

C. Cycle switchini stops; Transmit Delta set irows

D. Cycle switchini contnues; Capture Delta set count irows

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

What are the default percentaies of RA CPU resource distributon for SRDF Synchronous, Asynchronous, and Adaptve Copy modes on VMAX3 arrays?

A. 40 / 30 / 20

B. 50 / 40 / 20

C. 60 / 30 / 10

D. 70 / 20 / 10

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

What happens when SRDF/A DSE beiins to spill tracks in VMAX3?

A. Uses SRP to ofoad the data from cache

B. Uses the DSE pool associated with the SRDF iroup

C. Uses the cache partton for the excess tracks

D. Throtles the host I/O to pace with the data transfer

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which database does Unisphere for VMAX 8.0 use for Performance Analyier?

A. PostireSQL

B. MySQL

C. SQL Server

D. Oracle

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

You are in a meetni with a customer describini the features of VMAX3 arrays. The customer wants to know more about VMAX3 confiuraton chanies that can be performed with Unisphere for VMAX. Which objects can be confiured with Unisphere for VMAX?

A. Thin devices and Autoprovisionini Groups

B. Thin devices, Storaie Resource Pools, and Maskini Views

C. Data Pools and Storaie Resource Pools

D. Disk Groups, Data Pools, and Autoprovisionini Groups

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

You are in a meetni with a customer discussini VMAX3 eniine scalability. What is the maximum number of eniines that can be confiured on a VMAX 200K?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

You are proposini a VMAX3 soluton with mixed drive types to a customer. The customer wants to understand the relatonship between Service Level Objectves and drive types. Which drive types will the Platnum SLO use under most circumstances?

A. Flash, 15K RPM, and 10K RPM

B. Flash and 15K RPM only

C. 15K RPM, 10K RPM, and 7.2K RPM

D. 15K RPM and 10K RPM only

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

You are in a meetni with a customer to discuss virtual provisionini on VMAX3 arrays. The customer wants informaton on extent allocaton durini thin device creaton. How many extent(s) are allocated when a thin device is created?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 12

D. 42

Correct Answer: A