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Free Sharing Updated 3V0-21.21 VCE and PDF Exam Practice Materials

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Question 1:

Which two of the listed requirements would be classified as performance non-functional requirements? (Choose two.)

A. The vSphere platform must be able to provide a recovery time objective of 30 minutes

B. The vSphere platform must be able to provide a minimum throughput of 400 MB/s

C. The vSphere platform must be able to provide N 1 redundancy

D. The vSphere platform must be able to provide a maximum read latency of 15 ms

E. The vSphere platform must be able to provide a service-level agreement (SLA) of 99,9%

Correct Answer: AD


Question 2:

An architect will be taking over control of a former Linux server fleet and repurposing the hardware into a new vSphere cluster. The current environment is already connected to the network but the hosts do not have any local disks. Since the fleet hardware is uniform, the architect can use a single ESXi image. All hosts within the cluster have the same CPU and memory capacity.

Which ESXi deployment method should the architect use?

A. Stateless cached vSphere Auto Deploy

B. Stateless vSphere Auto Deploy

C. Manual install of each ESXi host with an image from USB

D. Stateful vSphere Auto Deploy

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

An architect is finalizing the design for a new vCenter Server High Availability deployment.

What is one thing the architect must document in the design?

A. The load balancing algorithm used by the Management Distributed Virtual Switches (DVS)

B. The SSH configuration settings for the vCenter Server\’s active node

C. The vCenter Management Network IPv4 addresses for the witness node vCenter Server

D. The details of each of the vCenter Server licenses for active, passive and witness nodes

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

An architect is designing a new VMware solution for a customer that has a number of different resource

profiles.

The following are the business requirements for the design:

The solution must support virtual machines with the following storage profiles:

-Write-intensive

-Backup

-Write-Once-Read-Many (WORM) archive

The solution must support migration of virtual machine disks between storage profiles.

The WORM archive data must be located at an isolated secure site.

The backup storage array must only be connected to a backup media server.

All data should be recoverable from backup.

Which design decision should the architect make to meet the business requirements?

A. The solution will leverage a single storage array for the WORM archive and write-intensive storage profiles

B. The solution will leverage the same array for the backup and write-intensive storage profiles

C. The solution will leverage a different array for each storage profile

D. The solution will leverage a single storage array for all storage profiles

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

An architect is designing the expansion of an existing vSphere 7 environment. The customer is requesting

a design for a new cluster to support the anticipated future business growth. The requirements specified

for the existing environment design must be considered when designing the new cluster.

The existing design has the following requirements:

REQ01 The environment has an availability target of 99.5% for all infrastructure.

REQ02 The recovery time objective (RTO) for Tier 1 virtual machines is one hour.

REQ03 Windows and Linux virtual machines must reside on separate clusters.

REQ04 Access to the management cluster within the environment must be controlled.

Which of the listed requirements would be classified as a functional requirement?

A. The environment has an availability target of 99.5% for all infrastructure

B. The recovery time objective (RTO) for Tier 1 virtual machines is one hour

C. Access to the management cluster within the environment must be controlled

D. Windows and Linux virtual machines must reside on separate clusters

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

An architect makes the design decision to install ESXi on embedded and resilient 8 GB SD cards. What is the impact of this design decision?

A. Host profiles must be used for this kind of installation

B. Scratch partition would need to be created on the external storage

C. The size of the SD cards is too small and the installation will fail

D. The vSphere Auto Deploy feature must be enabled on vCenter Server

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

An architect is designing a new vSphere environment to meet the following requirements:

The environment must support 5,000 virtual machines.

The environment will be built initially using 350 hosts.

Which vCenter Server appliance deployment size should the architect specify for the design?

A. Large

B. Small

C. Tiny

D. Medium

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

An architect is designing a new greenfield environment with 600 ESXi hosts in an automated fashion. The engineering department already has a PXE Boot server, TFTP server, and DHCP server set up with an NFS mount for their current Linux servers.

The architect must be able to demonstrate and meet a security requirement to have all infrastructure processes separated.

Which recommendation should the architect make for the ESXi host deployment?

A. Request an isolated network segment to use and dedicate it to Auto Deploy functions

B. Ask the business to expand the engineering environment to service the virtual environment as well

C. Request a common shared network with flexible security measures to accommodate different auto deployment options

D. Deploy each ESXi host individually and document it to satisfy security requirements

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

An architect is designing a new vSphere environment with the following resources:

600 vCPU

5,760 GB RAM

Average resource usage is:

60 vCPU

1,152 GB RAM

The design must meet the following requirements:

The environment has the ability to burst by 25%.

Each host can schedule 36 vCPUs and has 512 GB RAM.

Management overhead is 20%.

What is the minimum number of hosts required to meet the design requirements?

A. Three

B. Five

C. Four

D. Two

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

An architect is designing a new vSphere platform to meet a list of requirements from the security team.

Which two requirements would be classified as non-functional requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Migration of virtual machines between hosts must be encrypted

B. Log information must be verbose to support incident resolution

C. Critical events generated within the platform must be logged to an external Syslog service

D. Data integrity must be ensured

E. A common content library must be maintained across all data centers

Correct Answer: BC


Question 11:

An architect is reviewing a physical storage design. The customer has specified that storage DRS will be used for ease of operational management for capacity and performance.

Which recommendation should the architect include in the design?

A. Create smaller datastores to balance space with Storage DRS

B. Use a larger number of storage profiles (varied disk speeds and RAID levels) to improve performance

C. Create larger datastores to balance space with Storage DRS

D. Create more datastores within each Storage DRS cluster to balance space and performance

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) for an organization is concerned about the security posture of the operating system images that are used for the provisioning of their Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) applications. The organization is in a growth period. The organization is opening a new data center to

launch its next phase of new SaaS-based solutions.

The DevOps team currently creates encrypted virtual machine (VM) templates that are used for various

operating systems and adds these to the vSphere inventory. The DevOps team already uses a published

content library and has been granted a role with the ability to add and delete library items.

The following requirements have been noted:

Impacts to the DevOps team\’s operational processes must be kept to a minimum.

The DevOps team must be able to regularly check out a copy of the image for updates and check in a new

version of the image.

Images must be synchronized from the primary data center to the new data center.

Which three recommendations should the architect make to design a content library solution that will meet

these requirements? (Choose three.)

A. Clone virtual machines as VM templates to the published content library

B. Create a subscribed library from the published library and synchronize Open Virtualization Format (OVF) templates on-demand

C. Create a subscription and publish VM templates to a subscribed content library

D. Create a subscribed library from the published library and synchronize Open Virtualization Format (OVF) templates automatically

E. Clone virtual machines as Open Virtualization Format (OVF) templates to the published content library

F. Update the role for the DevOps team with new privileges

Correct Answer: BEF


Question 13:

An architect is tasked with planning the design of a new vSphere environment. When commissioned, this environment will be used to migrate an existing set of virtual machines.

An inventory of the existing infrastructure, including configured vCPU, RAM and storage sizes has been provided.

In order for each virtual machine to be migrated, which two data sources with peak and average utilization data are required for sizing? (Choose two.)

A. %Ready

B. Disk Write latency

C. CPU

D. Ballooned memory

E. IOPS

Correct Answer: BE


Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

During a requirements gathering workshop, the customer shares the following about their existing ESXi

host virtual networking infrastructure:

The customer confirms that:

Each ESXi host has approximately 200 virtual machines.

They want to maximize the number of concurrent virtual machine migrations.

When placing a host in maintenance mode, it takes a long time to evacuate the virtual machines.

Which two recommendations should the architect make in order to help the customer overcome their

challenge? (Choose two.)

A. Configure the network to use MTU for the VMotion VMKernel to 1,600 bytes

B. Configure the network to use MTU for the VMotion VMKernel to 9,000 bytes

C. Create an additional standard switch with pNIC3 to use for vMotion

D. Use the 3 pNICs and bundle them in a link aggregation group (LAG) configuration

E. Use 10 GbE NICs instead of 1 GbE

Correct Answer: AD


Question 15:

An architect is designing a VMware solution for a customer based on the following information:

The solution must use investments in existing storage array that supports both block and file storage.

The solution must support the ability to migrate workloads between hosts within a cluster.

The solution must support resource management priorities.

The solution must support the ability to connect virtual machines directly to LUNs.

The solution should use existing IPv4 based network infrastructure.

There is no budget for additional physical hardware.

Which two design decisions could the architect make to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. The ESXi hosts will leverage Fibre Channel (FC)

B. The ESXi hosts will leverage NFS 3

C. The ESXi hosts will leverage Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)

D. The ESXi hosts will leverage iSCSI

E. The ESXi hosts will leverage NFS 4.1

Correct Answer: DE


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Question 1:

Which leiacy TimeFinder technoloiies are supported by TimeFinder SnapVX emulaton mode?

A. Mirror, Clone, VP Snap

B. Mirror, Clone, Snap

C. Mirror, VP Snap, Snap

D. Clone, VP Snap, Snap

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

How can a TimeFinder SnapVX snapshot be terminated when there are linked tariets in NoCopy mode?

A. Unlink the tariet and terminate

B. Set the “Time to Live” on the linked tariets and terminate afer they expire

C. Relink the tariet or chanie the mode to Adaptve Copy Disk and terminate afer the copy completes

D. Re-set the ieneraton number on the snapshot and terminate

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

A storaie administrator has completed TimeFinder SnapVX testni. The administrator is unable to terminate the TimeFinder SnapVX snapshot of the test Storaie Group. What advice should be provided to the administrator?

A. Check for linked tariets

B. Chanie the “Time to Live” setni

C. Confrm there is available Reserved Capacity

D. Issue the terminate command aiainst the individual LUNs

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

SRDF/A has been enabled between two VMAX3 arrays. What is the beneft of SRDF/A Mult-Cycle mode?

A. Cycle switches will occur even if transmit delta set is not empty

B. Transmit cycle will be added to the receive queue

C. Data sent across the SRDF link will be larier in siie

D. R2 side will have two delta sets; transmit and receive

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

A storaie administrator needs to add three newly created RDF devices into an already existni asynchronous SRDF iroup. What are the appropriate steps to achieve this ioal?

A. Synchroniie the three new devices in a temporary iroup. Suspend the temporary iroup. Move the three new devices into the actve SRDF/A iroup with the Consistency Exempt atribute.

B. Synchroniie the three new devices in a temporary iroup. Suspend the temporary iroup. Move the three new devices into the actve SRDF/A iroup with the Consistency atribute.

C. Move the three new devices into the actve SRDF/A iroup. Establish the three new devices. Resume the previously actve SRDF/A iroup.

D. Suspend the actve SRDF/A iroup. Move the three new devices into the actve SRDF/A iroup. Resume the previously actve SRDF/A iroup.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Which database does Unisphere for VMAX 8.0 use for Performance Analyier?

A. PostireSQL

B. MySQL

C. SQL Server

D. Oracle

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Other than VMware ESXi, which type of virtual servers can be discovered in Unisphere of VMAX?

A. Microsof Hyper-V

B. Citrix XenServer

C. Oracle VirtualBox

D. Open Source – KVM

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

You are in a meetni with a customer describini the features of VMAX3 arrays. The customer wants to know more about VMAX3 confiuraton chanies that can be performed with Unisphere for VMAX. Which objects can be confiured with Unisphere for VMAX?

A. Thin devices and Autoprovisionini Groups

B. Thin devices, Storaie Resource Pools, and Maskini Views

C. Data Pools and Storaie Resource Pools

D. Disk Groups, Data Pools, and Autoprovisionini Groups

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

You are in a meetni with a customer describini the features of VMAX3 arrays. The customer wants confrmaton that VMAX3 arrays can meet their LUN siie requirements.

What is the lariest thin device that can be created?

A. 240 GB

B. 16 TB

C. 60 TB

D. 64 TB

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

You are discussini the desiin of a VMAX3 soluton with a customer. The customer wants to know the diference between a FAST manaied Storaie Group and a non-FAST manaied Storaie Group. When is a Storaie Group (SG) considered FAST manaied?

A. Service Level Objectve is explicitly set on the SG

B. SG is part of a Maskini View

C. Host I/O limits are explicitly set on the SG

D. SG is associated with a FAST policy

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

You are in a meetni with a customer discussini virtual provisionini on VMAX3 arrays. The customer wants informaton on Storaie Resource Pool allocaton manaiement. What is the basis for the allocaton of new extents to a device?

A. Data Pool Rankini and SLO

B. Data Pool RAID types and SRP capacity

C. Data Pool Rankini and SRP capacity

D. Data Pool RAID types and default SLO

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

A customer has an existni Maskini View on a VMAX3 for a larie server cluster. The parent Storaie Group in this Maskini View has several child Storaie Groups with diferent SLOs. The customer has determined that they need to add additonal

capacity to the cluster. When the storaie administrator atempts to add devices directly to the parent Storaie Group, the administrator receives an error and the operaton fails.

What is a potental cause of the error?

A. Addini devices and Storaie Groups to the same parent Storaie Group is not permited.

B. A Storaie Group must not be in a Maskini View to be modifed.

C. Cluster is exceedini the assiined Host I/O limit.

D. Devices are not yet associated with an SLO policy.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

How does the VMAX3 Platnum Service Level Objectve (SLO) difer from the Optmiied Service Level Objectve?

A. Platnum SLO emulates Flash and 15K RPM drive performance and has an expected averaie response tme.

B. Workload Type can be assiined to Platnum-associated Storaie Groups and emulates Flash, 15K RPM, and 7.2K RPM drive performance.

C. Platnum SLO emulates Flash and 15K RPM drive performance and has a confiurable averaie response tme.

D. No Workload Type can be assiined to Platnum-associated Storaie Groups and it places the most actve data on hiiher performini storaie.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

A VMAX3 parent Storaie Group (SG) contains two child SGs: SG1 and SG2. What is a valid Host I/O bandwidth limit setni for this confiuraton?

A. Parent SG – 400 SG1 – 500, SG2 – 200

B. Parent SG ?400 SG1 – 500, SG2 – NOLIMIT

C. Parent SG ?500 SG1 – 500, SG2 – 400

D. Parent SG ?500 SG1 – NOLIMIT, SG2 – 1000

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

You are in a meetni with a customer to discuss storaie provisionini on VMAX3 arrays. What is a consideraton for Autoprovisionini Groups on VMAX3 arrays?

A. An initator may only beloni to one Initator Group.

B. A device cannot beloni to more than one Storaie Group.

C. A port may only beloni to one Port Group.

D. Maximum number of levels of cascadini permited in a Storaie Group is 64.

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

In the field of cryptanalysis, what is meant by a “rubber-hose” attack?

A. Forcing the targeted keystream through a hardware-accelerated device such as an ASIC.

B. A backdoor placed into a cryptographic algorithm by its creator.

C. Extraction of cryptographic secrets through coercion or torture.

D. Attempting to decrypt ciphertext by making logical assumptions about the contents of the original plaintext.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

When considering how an attacker may exploit a web server, what is web server footprinting?

A. When an attacker implements a vulnerability scanner to identify weaknesses

B. When an attacker creates a complete profile of the site\’s external links and file structures

C. When an attacker gathers system-level data, including account details and server names

D. When an attacker uses a brute-force attack to crack a web-server password

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

When configuring wireless on his home router, Javik disables SSID broadcast. He leaves authentication “open” but sets the SSID to a 32-character string of random letters and numbers.

What is an accurate assessment of this scenario from a security perspective?

A. Since the SSID is required in order to connect, the 32-character string is sufficient to prevent brute-force attacks.

B. Disabling SSID broadcast prevents 802.11 beacons from being transmitted from the access point, resulting in a valid setup leveraging “security through obscurity”.

C. It is still possible for a hacker to connect to the network after sniffing the SSID from a successful wireless association.

D. Javik\’s router is still vulnerable to wireless hacking attempts because the SSID broadcast setting can be enabled using a specially crafted packet sent to the hardware address of the access point.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

what are common files on a web server that can be misconfigured and provide useful Information for a hacker such as verbose error messages?

A. httpd.conf

B. administration.config

C. idq.dll

D. php.ini

Correct Answer: D

The php.ini file may be a special file for PHP. it\’s where you declare changes to your PHP settings. The server is already configured with standard settings for PHP, which your site will use by default. Unless you would like to vary one or more settings, there\’s no got to create or modify a php.ini file. If you\’d wish to make any changes to settings, please do so through the MultiPHP INI Editor.


Question 5:

What is the common name for a vulnerability disclosure program opened by companies In platforms such as HackerOne?

A. Vulnerability hunting program

B. Bug bounty program

C. White-hat hacking program

D. Ethical hacking program

Correct Answer: B

Bug bounty programs allow independent security researchers to report bugs to an companies and receive rewards or compensation. These bugs area unit sometimes security exploits and vulnerabilities, although they will additionally embody method problems, hardware flaws, and so on. The reports area unit usually created through a program travel by associate degree freelance third party (like Bugcrowd or HackerOne). The companies can got wind of (and run) a program curated to the organization\’s wants. Programs is also non-public (invite-only) wherever reports area unit unbroken confidential to the organization or public (where anyone will sign in and join). they will happen over a collection timeframe or with without stopping date (though the second possibility is a lot of common). Who uses bug bounty programs?Many major organizations use bug bounties as an area of their security program, together with AOL, Android, Apple, Digital Ocean, and goldman Sachs. you\’ll read an inventory of all the programs offered by major bug bounty suppliers, Bugcrowd and HackerOne, at these links. Why do corporations use bug bounty programs?Bug bounty programs provide corporations the flexibility to harness an outsized cluster of hackers so as to seek out bugs in their code. This gives them access to a bigger variety of hackers or testers than they\’d be able to access on a one-on-one basis. It {can also|also will|can even|may also|may} increase the probabilities that bugs area unit found and reported to them before malicious hackers can exploit them. It may also be an honest publicity alternative for a firm. As bug bounties became a lot of common, having a bug bounty program will signal to the general public and even regulators that a corporation incorporates a mature security program. This trend is likely to continue, as some have began to see bug bounty programs as an business normal that all companies ought to invest in. Why do researchers and hackers participate in bug bounty programs?Finding and news bugs via a bug bounty program may end up in each money bonuses and recognition. In some cases, it will be a good thanks to show real-world expertise once you are looking for employment, or will even facilitate introduce you to parents on the protection team within an companies. This can be full time income for a few of us, income to supplement employment, or the way to point out off your skills and find a full time job. It may also be fun! it is a nice (legal) probability to check out your skills against huge companies and government agencies. What area unit the disadvantages of a bug bounty program for independent researchers and hackers?A lot of hackers participate in these varieties of programs, and it will be tough to form a major quantity of cash on the platform. In order to say the reward, the hacker has to be the primary person to submit the bug to the program. meaning that in apply, you may pay weeks searching for a bug to use, solely to be the person to report it and build no cash. Roughly ninety seven of participants on major bug bounty platforms haven\’t sold-out a bug. In fact, a 2019 report from HackerOne confirmed that out of quite three hundred,000 registered users, solely around two.5% received a bounty in their time on the platform. Essentially, most hackers are not creating a lot of cash on these platforms, and really few square measure creating enough to switch a full time wage (plus they do not have advantages like vacation days, insurance, and retirement planning). What square measure the disadvantages of bug bounty programs for organizations?These programs square measure solely helpful if the program ends up in the companies realizeing issues that they weren\’t able to find themselves (and if they\’ll fix those problems)! If the companies is not mature enough to be able to quickly rectify known problems, a bug bounty program is not the right alternative for his or her companies. Also, any bug bounty program is probably going to draw in an outsized range of submissions, several of which can not be high-quality submissions. a corporation must be ready to cope with the exaggerated volume of alerts, and also the risk of a coffee signal to noise magnitude relation (essentially that it\’s probably that they\’re going to receive quite few unhelpful reports for each useful report). Additionally, if the program does not attract enough participants (or participants with the incorrect talent set, and so participants are not able to establish any bugs), the program is not useful for the companies. The overwhelming majority of bug bounty participants consider web site vulnerabilities (72%, per HackerOn), whereas solely a number of (3.5%) value more highly to seek for package vulnerabilities. This is probably because of the actual fact that hacking in operation systems (like network hardware and memory) needs a big quantity of extremely specialised experience. this implies that firms may even see vital come on investment for bug bounties on websites, and not for alternative applications, notably those that need specialised experience. This conjointly implies that organizations which require to look at AN application or web site among a selected time-frame may not need to rely on a bug bounty as there is no guarantee of once or if they receive reports. Finally, it are often probably risky to permit freelance researchers to try to penetrate your network. this could end in public speech act of bugs, inflicting name harm within the limelight (which could end in individuals not eager to purchase the organizations\’ product or service), or speech act of bugs to additional malicious third parties, United Nations agency may use this data to focus on the organization.


Question 6:

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Packet Sniffers operate on the Layer 1 of the OSI model.

B. Packet Sniffers operate on Layer 2 of the OSI model.

C. Packet Sniffers operate on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 of the OSI model.

D. Packet Sniffers operate on Layer 3 of the OSI model.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Ralph, a professional hacker, targeted Jane, who had recently bought new systems for her company. After a few days, Ralph contacted Jane while masquerading as a legitimate customer support executive, informing that her systems need to be serviced for proper functioning and that customer support will send a computer technician. Jane promptly replied positively. Ralph entered Jane\’s company using this opportunity and gathered sensitive information by scanning terminals for passwords, searching for important documents in desks, and rummaging bins. What is the type of attack technique Ralph used on jane?

A. Dumpster diving

B. Eavesdropping

C. Shoulder surfing

D. impersonation

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Leverox Solutions hired Arnold, a security professional, for the threat intelligence process. Arnold collected information about specific threats against the organization. From this information, he retrieved contextual information about security events and incidents that helped him disclose potential risks and gain insight into attacker methodologies. He collected the information from sources such as humans, social media, and chat rooms as well as from events that resulted in cyberattacks. In this process, he also prepared a report that includes identified malicious activities, recommended courses of action, and warnings for emerging attacks. What is the type of threat intelligence collected by Arnold in the above scenario?

A. Strategic threat intelligence

B. Tactical threat intelligence

C. Operational threat intelligence

D. Technical threat intelligence

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Which tool can be used to silently copy files from USB devices?

A. USB Grabber

B. USB Snoopy

C. USB Sniffer

D. Use Dumper

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Which of the following algorithms can be used to guarantee the integrity of messages being sent, in transit, or stored?

A. symmetric algorithms

B. asymmetric algorithms

C. hashing algorithms

D. integrity algorithms

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Don, a student, came across a gaming app in a third-party app store and Installed it. Subsequently, all the legitimate apps in his smartphone were replaced by deceptive applications that appeared legitimate. He also received many advertisements on his smartphone after Installing the app. What is the attack performed on Don in the above scenario?

A. SMS phishing attack

B. SIM card attack

C. Agent Smith attack

D. Clickjacking

Correct Answer: D

Clickjacking is an attack that tricks a user into clicking a webpage element which is invisible or disguised as another element. this will cause users to unwittingly download malware, visit malicious sites , provide credentials or sensitive information, transfer money, or purchase products online.Typically, clickjacking is performed by displaying an invisible page or HTML element, inside an iframe, on top of the page the user sees. The user believes they\’re clicking the visible page but actually they\’re clicking an invisible element within the additional page transposed on top of it.The invisible page might be a malicious page, or a legitimate page the user didn\’t shall visit ?for instance , a page on the user\’s banking site that authorizes the transfer of cash .There are several variations of the clickjacking attack, such as: Likejacking a way during which the Facebook “Like” button is manipulated, causing users to “like” a page they really didn\’t shall like. Cursorjacking a UI redressing technique that changes the cursor for the position the user perceives to a different position. Cursorjacking relies on vulnerabilities in Flash and therefore the Firefox browser, which have now been fixed. Clickjacking attack example1. The attacker creates a beautiful page which promises to offer the user a free trip to Tahiti.2. within the background the attacker checks if the user is logged into his banking site and if so, loads the screen that permits transfer of funds, using query parameters to insert the attacker\’s bank details into the shape .3. The bank transfer page is displayed in an invisible iframe above the free gift page, with the “Confirm Transfer” button exactly aligned over the “Receive Gift” button visible to the user.4. The user visits the page and clicks the “Book My Free Trip” button.5. actually the user is clicking on the invisible iframe, and has clicked the “Confirm Transfer” button. Funds are transferred to the attacker.6. The user is redirected to a page with information about the free gift (not knowing what happened within the background). This example illustrates that, during a clickjacking attack, the malicious action (on the bank website, during this case) can\’t be traced back to the attacker because the user performed it while being legitimately signed into their own account. Clickjacking mitigationThere are two general ways to defend against clickjacking: Client- side methods the foremost common is named Frame Busting. Client-side methods are often effective in some cases, but are considered to not be a best practice, because they will be easily bypassed. Server-side methods the foremost common is X-Frame-Options. Server-side methods are recommended by security experts as an efficient thanks to defend against clickjacking.


Question 12:

Bob, your senior colleague, has sent you a mail regarding a deal with one of the clients. You are requested to accept the offer and you oblige. After 2 days, Bab denies that he had ever sent a mail. What do you want to “”know”” to prove yourself that it was Bob who had send a mail?

A. Non-Repudiation

B. Integrity

C. Authentication

D. Confidentiality

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

John, a disgruntled ex-employee of an organization, contacted a professional hacker to exploit the organization. In the attack process, the professional hacker Installed a scanner on a machine belonging to one of the vktims and scanned several machines on the same network to Identify vulnerabilities to perform further exploitation. What is the type of vulnerability assessment tool employed by John in the above scenario?

A. Proxy scanner

B. Agent-based scanner

C. Network-based scanner

D. Cluster scanner

Correct Answer: B

Knowing when to include agents into your vulnerability management processes isn\’t an easy decision. Below are common use cases for agent-based vulnerability scanning to assist you build out your combined scanning strategy. Intermittent or Irregular Connectivity: Vulnerability management teams are now tasked with scanning devices that access the company network remotely using public or home-based Wi-Fi connections. These connections are often unreliable and intermittent leading to missed network-based scans. Fortunately, the scanning frequency of agents doesn\’t require a network connection. The agent detects when the device is back online, sending scan data when it\’s ready to communicate with the VM platform. Connecting Non-Corporate Devices to Corporate Networks:With the increased use of private devices, company networks are more exposed to malware and infections thanks to limited IT and security teams\’ control and visibility. Agent-based scanning gives security teams insight into weaknesses on non-corporate endpoints, keeping them informed about professional hacker is potential attack vectors in order that they can take appropriate action. Endpoints Residing Outside of Company Networks: Whether company-issued or BYOD, remote assets frequently hook up with the web outside of traditional network bounds. An agent that resides on remote endpoints conducts regular, authenticated scans checking out system changes and unpatched software. The results are then sent back to the VM platform and combined with other scan results for review, prioritization, and mitigation planning.


Question 14:

Gerard, a disgruntled ex-employee of Sunglass IT Solutions, targets this organization to perform sophisticated attacks and bring down its reputation in the market. To launch the attacks process, he performed DNS footprinting to gather information about ONS servers and to identify the hosts connected in the target network. He used an automated tool that can retrieve information about DNS zone data including DNS domain names, computer names. IP addresses. DNS records, and network Who is records. He further exploited this information to launch other sophisticated attacks. What is the tool employed by Gerard in the above scenario?

A. Knative

B. zANTI

C. Towelroot

D. Bluto

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Morris, an attacker, wanted to check whether the target AP is in a locked state. He attempted using

different utilities to identify WPS-enabled APs in the target wireless network. Ultimately, he succeeded with

one special command-line utility.

Which of the following command-line utilities allowed Morris to discover the WPS-enabled APs?

A. wash

B. ntptrace

C. macof

D. net View

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Which of the following is true about the flag field in the HDLC frame? (multiple choice)

A. The fixed value is 01111110

B. Start and end of the flag field flag frame

C. Two flag fields are required between the two frames at the beginning of the frame and at the end of the frame.

D. The channel is still active at the time of no frame transmission. In this state, the sender continuously sends the flag field, and the receiver detects each received flag field.

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 2:

Directly connected to the specified port of the peer device, does not forward any packets, but which port is the port that receives BPDUs to monitor network changes?

A. Root Port

B. Designated Port

C. Alternate Port

D. Disable Port

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Directly connected to the specified port of the peer device, does not forward any packets, but which port is the port that receives BPDUs to monitor network changes?

A. Root Port

B. Designated Port

C. Alternate Port

D. Disable Port

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

In the Eudemon firewall, what are the principles for the association between the security zone and each network? (Multiple choice)

A. The internal network should be arranged in a higher security area

B. The external network should be arranged in the lowest security area

C. Some networks that provide conditional services to the outside should be placed in a mediumsized DMZ zone.

D. The internal network should be arranged in the medium DMZ area

E. The external network should have a Trust zone

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 5:

In HDLC, the start and end fields of the flag frame are a fixed value, is it?

A. 11111111

B. 1111110

C. 0

D. 11111110

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Which of the following is the correct description of the configuration BPDU generation? (multiple choice)

A. As long as the port is enabled with STP, the configuration BPDU will be sent from the designated port at regular intervals.

B. When the root port receives the configuration BPDU, the device where the root port resides will copy a configuration BPDU to each of its designated ports.

C. When the designated port receives a configuration BPDU that is worse than itself, it will immediately send its own BPDU to the downstream device.

D. The topology of the non-root bridge changes. The BPDU is notified by configuring the BPDU.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 7:

The following description of the advantages of optical fiber as a transmission medium, what are the correct ones? (multiple choice) A. Not susceptible to interference from electromagnetic signals

B. High transmission rate

C. The transmission distance is infinitely long

D. Expensive

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 8:

What are the common methods in VLAN-based partitioning? (multiple choice)

A. Port-based VLAN

B. VLAN based on MAC address

C. VLAN based on protocol

D. Divide VLAN based on TCP port number

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 9:

Asynchronous Response Mode (ARM) is a way of allowing any node to initiate a transfer.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

The switch supports the 802.1Q protocol. What is the vlan range?

A. (0,255)

B. (0, 1023)

C. (0, 2047)

D. (0,4095)

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Adding a shielding layer on the outside of the twisted pair, called (), can improve the anti- electromagnetic interference capability of the twisted pair.

A. STP

B. UTP

C. BTP

D. RPR

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

What is the correct statement about free ARP? (multiple choice)

A. By sending a free ARP, you can confirm whether the IP address has a conflict.

B. The free ARP packet format belongs to the AR request packet.

C. Free ARP helps update old IP address information

D. The free ARP packet format belongs to the ARP reply packet.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 13:

What are the methods to solve the routing loop problem?

A. Horizontal segmentation

B. Route suppression method

C. Router restart

D. Define the maximum value of the route metric

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 14:

The network administrator is removing multiple VLANs from the switch. When the administrator enters the undo vlan 1 command, he receives an error message. What is the cause of the error message?

A. VLAN can only be deleted by the user who created it

B. VLAN 1 can be deleted only after the role of VLAN 1 is assigned to other VLANs.

C. The command was not entered correctly, resulting in a syntax error

D. VLAN 1 is the default management VLAN and cannot be deleted.

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Which of the following protocols provides a connectionless transport service?

A. IP

B. IPX

C. TCP

D. UDP

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

A customer is a cloud provider who needs a new storage array. They want a solution that has built-in multi-tenancy features. Why should you propose HPE 3PAR StoreServ to the customer?

A. It divides controller nodes into groups for multiple tenants.

B. It includes the virtual domains feature as part of all-inclusive licensing.

C. It divides drives into separate pools for multiple tenants.

D. It includes the NPARs feature for physical separation of the array into tenant areas.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/4aa3-3516enw.pdf


Question 2:

A customer is looking for a new platform to support their AI research projects. Which technology should you recommend?

A. Peer Persistence

B. Multi-core GPUs

C. Availability clustering

D. Persistent memory

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/emea_europe/en/solutions/infosight.html


Question 3:

A customer is looking to virtualize desktops and application access to provide better business continuance and disaster recovery. They also need simplified deployment and the ability to scale out in the feature. Which HPE platform should you recommend?

A. Edgeline

B. ProLiant DL

C. Superdome Flex

D. SimpliVity

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/a00019351enw.pdf


Question 4:

What must be taken into account when using the HPE FlexFabric 5945 4-slot Switch as a ToR switch in a solution?

A. adding in a Network Analytics Engine license

B. specifying a fan tray with the appropriate direction of airflow

C. adding in an Intelligent Resilient Framework license

D. selecting power supplies with adequate reserve PoE capacity

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/uk/en/product-catalog/networking/networking-switches/pip.hpe-flexfabric-5945-switch-series.1010931108.html


Question 5:

A customer wants to implement a container platform across their enterprise data center. They need to automate hardware and software configurations to quickly provision and deploy at scale. Which authentication solution should you recommend?

A. Red Hat Ansible Tower

B. OpenStack on OpenStack

C. Chef

D. DevStack

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A customer is purchasing a full rack of DL380 Gen10 servers. They are under a severe time constraint and would like the servers to be ready to receive applications upon power up. What should be recommended to satisfy this requirement?

A. Use HPE Proactive Care services.

B. Use HP Pointnext service patching and OS installation services.

C. Include a Customer Intent Document with the order, requesting OS installation services.

D. Nothing additional: all servers arrive from the factory ready for application deployment.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

A customer contacts you for assistance with an expansion of their current HPE Synergy environment. The existing environment contains:

1.

one Synergy 12000 frame

2.

two Composers

3.

eight SY480 Compute Modules – 1 CPU – 384GB RAM – 3820C 10/20GbE CNA

4.

one D3940 Storage Module

The new requirement is 16Gb FC connectivity to a newly-deployed 3PAR storage array.

Which components should you include? (Choose two.)

A. Synergy 3830C Host Bus Adapter

B. two QSFP AOC/DAC cables for ICM clustering

C. a second CPU per Compute Module

D. HPE Synergy FC License Upgrade per Composer pair

E. an additional Virtual Connect SE 40Gb F8

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=c05061206


Question 8:

A customer running multiple HPE Synergy frames wants to change a parameter in the BIOS of all their VMware servers, based on the recommendations of their VMware team. Where is the most efficient location to make this change?

A. iLO Federation

B. Server Profile Template

C. Logical Enclosure

D. ROM Based Setup Utility (RBSU)

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

A customer asks you about the features of the HPE SimpliVity, such as performance, availability, efficiency, and protection. Which statement is correct about an HPE SimpliVity solution that enables these features?

A. The OmniStack Accelerator Card (OAC) contains a FPGA programmed with HPE SimpliVity deduplication, compression, and optimization algorithms.

B. The OmniStack Accelerator Card (OAC) connects directly to the iSCSI VIP address enabled by the OVC.

C. The OmniStack Accelerator Card (OAC) has direct hardware access to the two PCIe cards through VM direct path IO.

D. The OmniStack Virtual Controller(OVC) creates an iSCSI datastore where the hypervisor stores the workload VMs.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/a00009003enw.pdf (6)


Question 10:

In preparation for a customer presentation, you need to provide meaningful estimates of cooling requirements for HPE ProLiant, HPE Apollo, and HPE Synergy servers. What should you use?

A. HPE Synergy Planning Tool

B. HPE Proposal Web

C. HPE Server Memory Configurator

D. HPE Power Advisor

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA6-2925ENW.pdf


Question 11:

A customer requires front panel access for their Gen10 servers. What is required to meet this need?

A. a USB 2.0 Ethernet adapter

B. an installed iLo Advance license

C. Secure Boot enabled

D. Two-factor authentication enabled

Correct Answer: A

HPE iLO Service port – How to use it?


Question 12:

You are designing a highly-available SQL database solution, following HPE reference architectures for Microsoft SQL 2017 on Linux. Which HA design factors should be considered? (Choose two.)

A. Real-Time Operational Analytics

B. Transparent Data Encryption

C. Always On Failover Cluster Instance (FCI)

D. Read-Scale Availability Groups

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/V2/GetPDF.aspx/a00036336enw.pdf


Question 13:

A customer is looking for a switch virtualization feature that can help them simplify the management of their HPE FlexFabric switches. Which technology should you recommend?

A. VSF

B. MSTP

C. VXLAN

D. IRF

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=emr_na-c04214037anddocLocale=en_US (6)


Question 14:

A customer is asking for the latest version of the HPE Nimble Storage Integration Guide. Where can the customer download the guide?

A. HPE SPOCK

B. HPE Product Bulletin

C. HPE InfoSight

D. HPE Information Library

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://community.hpe.com/t5/Application-Integration/Announcing-the-release-of-HPE-Nimble-Storage-PowerShell-Toolkit/td-p/7017899#.XgCDWmbVLiw


Question 15:

A customer is interested in a Synergy solution. They need 100 compute modules and expect the workload to double in two years. They ask for the minimum number of management ports they will need to connect Synergy frames into their management network. How should you reply?

A. FLMs from all frames connect into a management ring, and the management ring connects into their management network with two uplinks.

B. FLMs from all frames connect to two external switches, and these two switches connect into their management network.

C. Synergy solution only allows 15 frames to be interconnected, so growth in customer\’s workload is not supported.

D. The RJ-45 ports on the front of each frame are connected to an external switch, which is connected into their management network.

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

You want to automatically generate the encryption and authentication keys during IPsec VPN establishment. What would be used to accomplish this task?

A. IPsec

B. Diffie_Hellman

C. Main mode

D. Aggregate mode

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which two segments describes IPsec VPNs? (Choose two.)

A. IPsec VPN traffic is always authenticated.

B. IPsec VPN traffic is always encrypted.

C. IPsec VPNs use security to secure traffic over a public network between two remote sites.

D. IPsec VPNs are dedicated physical connections between two private networks.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 3:

Which flow module components handles processing for UTM?

A. Policy

B. Zones

C. Services

D. Screen options

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Which two match conditions would be used in both static NAT and destination NAT rule sets? (Choose two.)

A. Destination zone

B. Destination interface

C. Source interface

D. Source zone

Correct Answer: BD


Question 5:

Which statement about IPsec is correct?

A. IPsec can be used to transport native Layer 2 packets.

B. IPsec can provide encapsulation but not encryption

C. IPsec is a standards-based protocol.

D. IPsec is used to provide data replication

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

What should you configure if you want to translate private source IP address to a single public IP address?

A. Source NAT

B. Destination NAT

C. Content filtering

D. Security Director

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

You are configuring an IPsec VPN tunnel between two location on your network. Each packet must be encrypted and authenticated. Which protocol would satisfy these requirements?

A. MD5

B. ESP

C. AH

D. SHA

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

You have created a zones-based security policy that permits traffic to a specific webserver for the marketing team. Other groups in the company are not permitted to access the webserver. When marketing users attempt to access the server they are unable to do so. What are two reasons for this access failure? (Choose two.)

A. You failed to change the source zone to include any source zone.

B. You failed to position the policy after the policy that denies access to the webserver.

C. You failed to commit the policy change.

D. You failed to position the policy before the policy that denies access the webserver

Correct Answer: CD


Question 9:

Which statements is correct about SKY ATP?

A. Sky ATP is an open-source security solution.

B. Sky ATP is used to automatically push out changes to the AppSecure suite.

C. Sky ATP only support sending threat feeds to vSRX Series devices

D. Sky ATP is a cloud-based security threat analyzer that performs multiple tasks

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Which type of security policy protect restricted services from running on non-standard ports?

A. Application firewall

B. IDP

C. Sky ATP

D. antivirus

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which statement is correct about IKE?

A. IKE phase 1 is used to establish the data path

B. IKE phase 1 only support aggressive mode.

C. IKE phase 1 negotiates a secure channel between gateways.

D. IKE phase 1 establishes the tunnel between devices

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Which two private cloud solution support vSRX devices? (Choose two.)

A. Microsoft Azure

B. Amazon Web Services (AWS)

C. VMware Web Services (AWS)

D. VMware NSX

E. Contrail Cloud

Correct Answer: AB


Question 13:

You want to integrate an SRX Series device with SKY ATP. What is the first action to accomplish task?

A. Issue the commit script to register the SRX Series device.

B. Copy the operational script from the Sky ATP Web UI.

C. Create an account with the Sky ATP Web UI.

D. Create the SSL VPN tunnel between the SRX Series device and Sky ATP.

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

What are the valid actions for a source NAT rule in J-Web? (choose three.)

A. On

B. Off

C. Pool

D. Source

E. interface

Correct Answer: BCE

https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos/topics/topic-map/nat-security-source-and- source-pool.html


Question 15:

What must you do first to use the Monitor/Alarms/Policy Log workspace in J-Web?

A. You must enable logging that uses the SD-Syslog format.

B. You must enable security logging that uses the TLS transport mode.

C. You must enable stream mode security logging on the SRX Series device.

D. You must enable event mode security logging on the SRX Series device.

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

You are inserting 1000 new items every second in a DynamoDB table. Once an hour these items are analyzed and then are no longer needed. You need to minimize provisioned throughput, storage, and API calls.

Given these requirements, what is the most efficient way to manage these Items after the analysis?

A. Retain the items in a single table

B. Delete items individually over a 24 hour period

C. Delete the table and create a new table per hour

D. Create a new table per hour

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

You have written an application that uses the Elastic Load Balancing service to spread traffic to several

web servers. Your users complain that they are sometimes forced to login again in the middle of using your

application, after they have already logged in. This is not behavior you have designed.

What is a possible solution to prevent this happening?

A. Use instance memory to save session state.

B. Use instance storage to save session state.

C. Use EBS to save session state

D. Use ElastiCache to save session state.

E. Use Glacier to save session slate.

Correct Answer: D

https://aws.amazon.com/caching/session-management/


Question 3:

How can you secure data at rest on an EBS volume?

A. Attach the volume to an instance using EC2\’s SSL interface.

B. Write the data randomly instead of sequentially.

C. Use an encrypted file system on top of the BBS volume.

D. Encrypt the volume using the S3 server-side encryption service.

E. Create an IAM policy that restricts read and write access to the volume.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

An application is designed to use Amazon SQS to manage messages from many independent senders. Each sender\’s messages must be processed in the order they are received.

Which SQS feature should be implemented by the Developer?

A. Configure each sender with a unique MessageGroupId

B. Enable MessageDeduplicationIds on the SQS queue

C. Configure each message with unique MessageGroupIds.

D. Enable ContentBasedDeduplication on the SQS queue

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

A Developer wants to find a list of items in a global secondary index from an Amazon DynamoDB table.

Which DynamoDB API call can the Developer use in order to consume the LEAST number of read capacity units?

A. Scan operation using eventually-consistent reads

B. Query operation using strongly-consistent reads

C. Query operation using eventually-consistent reads

D. Scan operation using strongly-consistent reads

Correct Answer: C

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/amazondynamodb/latest/developerguide/bp-query-scan.html


Question 6:

Queries to an Amazon DynamoDB table are consuming a large amount of read capacity. The table has a significant number of large attributes. The application does not need all of the attribute data.

How can DynamoDB costs be minimized while maximizing application performance?

A. Batch all the writes, and perform the write operations when no or few reads are being performed.

B. Create a global secondary index with a minimum set of projected attributes.

C. Implement exponential backoffs in the application.

D. Load balance the reads to the table using an Application Load Balancer.

Correct Answer: C

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/APIReference/query-api-troubleshooting.html


Question 7:

An advertising company has a dynamic website with heavy traffic. The company wants to migrate the

website infrastructure to AWS to handle everything except website development.

Which solution BEST meets these requirements?

A. Use AWS VM Import to migrate a web server image to AWS Launch the image on a compute-optimized Amazon EC2 instanceLaunch.

B. Launch multiple Amazon Lighsall instance behind a load balancer. Set up the website on those instances.

C. Deploy the website code in an AWS Elastic Beanstalk environment. Use Auto Scaling to scale the numbers of instance

D. Use Amazon S3 to host the website. Use Amazon CloudFornt to deliver the content at scale.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

You are writing to a DynamoDB table and receive the following exception:” ProvisionedThroughputExceededException”. though according to your Cloudwatch metrics for the table, you are not exceeding your provisioned throughput.

What could be an for this?

A. You haven\’t provisioned enough DynamoDB storage instances

B. You\’re exceeding your capacity on a particular Range Key

C. You\’re exceeding your capacity on a particular Hash Key

D. You\’re exceeding your capacity on a particular Sort Key

E. You haven\’t configured DynamoDB Auto Scaling triggers

Correct Answer: C

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/amazondynamodb/latest/developerguide/HowItWorks.CoreCompon ents.html#HowItWorks.CoreComponents.PrimaryKey https://docs.aws.amazon.com/amazondynamodb/latest/developerguide/HowItWorks.Partitions.ht ml https://docs.aws.amazon.com/amazondynamodb/latest/developerguide/bp-partition-key- design.html


Question 9:

A Developer is creating a web application that requires authentication, but also needs to support guest access to provide users limited access without having to authenticate. What service can provide support for the application to allow guest access?

A. IAM temporary credentials using AWS STS.

B. Amazon Directory Service

C. Amazon Cognito with unauthenticated access enabled

D. IAM with SAML integration

Correct Answer: A

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/serverless-application-model/latest/developerguide/serverless-gettingstarted-hello-world.html https://docs.aws.amazon.com/serverless-application-model/latest/developerguide/sam-cli-commandreference-sam-deploy.html https://docs.aws.amazon.com/serverless-application-model/latest/developerguide/sam-cli-commandreference-sam-package.html


Question 10:

A company recently migrated its web, application and NoSQL database tiers to AWS. The company is using Auto Scaling to scale the web and application tiers. More than 95 percent of the Amazon DynamoDB requests are repeated read- requests.

How can the DynamoDB NoSQL tier be scaled up to cache these repeated requests?

A. Amazon EMR

B. Amazon DynamoDB Accelerator

C. Amazon SQS

D. Amazon CloudFront

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/dynamodb/dax/


Question 11:

Which of the following services are key/value stores? Choose 3 answers A. Amazon ElastiCache

B. Simple Notification Service

C. DynamoDB

D. Simple Workflow Service

E. Simple Storage Service

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 12:

What type of block cipher does Amazon S3 offer for server side encryption?

A. Triple DES

B. Advanced Encryption Standard

C. Blowfish

D. RC5

Correct Answer: B

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonS3/latest/dev/serv-side-encryption.html


Question 13:

A company has an application that logs all information to Amazon S3. Whenever there is a new log file, an AWS Lambda function is invoked to process the log files. The code works, gathering all of the necessary information. However, when checking the Lambda function logs, duplicate entries with the same request ID are found.

What is causing the duplicate entries?

A. The S3 bucket name was specified incorrectly.

B. The Lambda function failed, and the Lambda service retired the invocation with a delay.

C. There was an S3 outage, which caused duplicate entries of the sale log file.

D. The application stopped intermittently and then resumed.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

A Development team wants to instrument their code to provide more detailed information to AWS X-Ray than simple outgoing and incoming requests. This will generate large amounts of data, so the Development team wants to implement indexing so they can filter the data.

What should the Development team do to achieve this?

A. Add annotations to the segment document and the code

B. Add metadata to the segment document and the code

C. Configure the necessary X-Ray environment variables

D. Install required plugins for the appropriate AWS SDK

Correct Answer: A

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/xray/latest/devguide/xray-sdk-python-segment.html

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/xray/latest/devguide/xray-concepts.html#xray-concepts-annotations


Question 15:

A Developer is going to deploy an AWS Lambda function that requires significant CPU utilization. Which approach will MINIMIZE the average runtime of the function?

A. Deploy the function into multiple AWS Regions

B. Deploy the function into multiple Availability Zones

C. Deploy the function using Lambda layers

D. Deploy the function with its memory allocation set to the maximum amount

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

Scenario: Global Mobile 1

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question

Global Mobile is a mobile telecommunications company formed through a series of mergers and acquisitions. They are yet to fully integrate the customer service systems for the most recent acquisitions, and as result, customer service has been a major concern for the Chief Technology Officer.

Results for the last two quarters have shown that Average Revenue Per User (ARPU) and the customer retention (Churn) rate have fallen below the industry average. The Corporate Marketing group has published some new findings about customer satisfaction. The customers appear to be switching to Air Light, a competitor, because of superior customer service. Global Mobile actually has better coverage in nearly all markets than Air Light, and good roaming agreements that keep rates low for business travelers. But, customer satisfaction has remained low.

The Business Strategy group and the Enterprise Architecture group have conducted a high-level project to develop the enterprise-wide strategic plan. They have developed a business scenario which contains a good conceptual model of what needs to be done, and also identifies the key requirements. This was used in preparing the proposal presented to the Executive Council and the Corporate Board.

The planning for the program has been underway for several months. Global Mobile has selected TOGAF 9 as the basis for its Enterprise Architecture.

The Corporate Board has approved funding for a multi-million Euro conversion to transition to a packaged Customer Service System. It is anticipated that the overall program will take five years to complete, but there are some tactical projects that can commence immediately to address the situation. The Corporate Board has placed one additional major constraint on the program. In addition to achieving the business outcomes directly related to improving overall customer service within each business unit, the Corporate Board expects the Target Architecture to produce an additional saving of at least 30% over current operating costs through energy efficiency initiatives, virtualization of servers and workstations, and expanded telecommuting and desk-sharing. This Green initiative is intended to become a model for future investments at all company facilities worldwide.

Refer to Global Mobile scenario

You have been engaged as a consultant to advise the Chief Architect on the best ways to approach to the implementation planning activities for this significant business transformation.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer? (Is this the right answers to choose?)

A. You recommend using conventional implementation planning techniques. The horizontal scope of the Green initiative would make the Capability-Based Planning approach used in the organization\’s TOGAF-based Enterprise Architecture framework difficult to manage and govern. This approach to planning was better applied within the vertical scope of a business unit.

B. You recommend that the implementation planning activities be conducted using Capability-Based Planning. This is appropriate because the Green initiative is an enterprise-wide plan with a horizontal scope. Its metrics are aggregated at the enterprise level. It is crucial to gain business unit support and cooperation to achieve the broader business outcomes which will benefit all.

C. The Capability-Based Planning approach used in the organization\’s TOGAF-based Enterprise Architecture framework is focused on business outcomes. The Green initiative is an infrastructure program that is technical in nature; therefore, it would not be appropriate to use the Capability-Based Planning approach. Instead, the Global Mobile systems development lifecycle approach should be utilized to develop the Solution Architecture.

D. You recommend using conventional implementation planning techniques. The Capability-Based Planning approach is normally only used in public sector, defense-related programs. This approach is not appropriate for a private sector company.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Scenario: AGEX Inc.

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question

AGEX is a large, global commodities trading company which has been growing rapidly through a series of acquisitions.

Each new business is performing well in its markets. However, the lack of integration between headquarters and the business units has increasingly caused problems in the handling of customer and financial information. The inability to share information across businesses has resulted in lost opportunities to “leverage the synergies” that had been intended when the businesses were acquired. At present, each business unit maintains its own applications. Despite an earlier initiative to install a common application to manage customer, products, supplier, and inventory information, each business unit has different ways of defining each of these core elements and has customized the common application to the point where the ability to exchange information is difficult, costly, and error-prone.

As a result, AGEX has begun implementing a single Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system to consolidate information from several applications that exist across the lines of business. The Corporate Board is concerned that the new ERP system must be able to manage and safeguard customer information in a manner that meets or exceeds the legal requirements of the countries in which the company operates. This will be an increasingly important capability as the company expands its online services offered to clients and trading partners.

The CIO has formed an Enterprise Architecture department, and one of the primary goals in its charter is to coordinate efforts between the ERP implementation team and the business unit personnel who will be involved in the migration process. The CIO has also formed a cross-functional Architecture Review Board to oversee and govern the architecture.

After reviewing the available alternatives, and based on recommendations from the ERP vendor, AGEX has selected TOGAF 9 as the basis for its Enterprise Architecture program.

The CIO has endorsed this choice with the full support of top management.

Refer to the AGEX Inc. Scenario

You are serving as the Chief Architect.

You have been asked to recommend the approach to take in the Preliminary Phase to ensure that the Corporate Board\’s concern is addressed.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. You evaluate the implications of the Board\’s concern in terms of regulatory and security policy requirements. You then update the AGEX security policy to reflect the concern, ensuring that this policy is communicated across the organization. You allocate a security architecture team to ensure that security considerations are included in ongoing architecture planning. You then assess the security implications and agreements within the AGEX businesses and their suppliers.

B. You evaluate the implications of the Board\’s concern in terms of regulatory requirements and their impact on business goals and objectives. Based on this understanding, you then issue a Request for Architecture Work to commence an architecture development project to develop a solution that will address the Board\’s concern. You allocate a security architect to oversee the implementation of the solution in the ERP system that is being developed.

C. You start by clarifying the intent that the Board has for raising this concern. This enables you to understand the implications of the concern in terms of regulatory requirements and the potential impact on current business goals and objectives. You propose that a security architect or security architecture team be allocated to develop comprehensive security architecture.

D. You evaluate the implications of the Board\’s concern by examining the potential impacts on business goals and objectives. Based on your understanding, you then update the current AGEX security policy to include an emphasis on the Board\’s concern. In addition, you allocate a security architect to ensure that security considerations are included in the architecture planning for all domains.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Scenario: St. Croix Consulting

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question

St. Croix Consulting started as an accounting and financial services company. It has expanded over the years and is now a leading North American IT and Business Services provider.

With numerous practice areas and a multitude of diverse engagements underway at any given time, overall engagement management has become challenging. The company does not want to risk its outstanding reputation or its international certifications and CMM ratings. Senior partners must become team players, working to support the broader needs of the company and its shareholders.

The Enterprise Architecture team has been working to create St. Croixs Enterprise Architecture framework to address these issues. The team has defined a preliminary framework and held workshops with key stakeholders to define a set of principles to govern the architecture work. They have completed an Architecture Vision at a strategic level and laid out Architecture Definitions for the four domains. They have set out an ambitious vision of the future of the company over a five-year period.

An Architecture Review Board has been formed comprised of IT staff executives and executives from the major practice areas.

The Enterprise Architecture framework is based on TOGAF 9.

The Chief Executive Officer and Chief Information Officer have co-sponsored the creation of the Enterprise Architecture program.

Refer to the St Croix Consulting Scenario:

You have been assigned to the role of Chief Enterprise Architect.

As the EA team prepares to formulate an Implementation plan, they have been asked by the CIO to assess the risks associated with the proposed architecture. He has received concerns from senior management that the proposed architecture may be too ambitious and they are not sure it can produce sufficient value to warrant the attendant risks.

You have been asked to recommend an approach to satisfy these concerns.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. An interoperability analysis should be applied to evaluate any potential issues across the Solution Architecture. Once all of the concerns have been resolved, the EA team should finalize the Architecture Implementation Roadmap and the Migration Plan.

B. The EA team should gather information about potential solutions from the appropriate sources. Once the Solution Architecture has been assembled, it should be analyzed using a state evolution table to determine the Transition Architectures.

C. Prior to preparing the Implementation plan, the EA team should create a consolidated gap analysis to understand the transformations that are required to achieve the proposed Target Architecture. The EA team should gather information about potential solutions from the appropriate sources. Once the Solution Architecture has been assembled, it should be analyzed using a state evolution table to determine the Transition Architectures. An interoperability analysis should be applied to evaluate any potential issues across the Solution Architecture.

D. Prior to preparing the Implementation plan, there are several techniques that should be applied to assess the risks and value of the proposed transformation. In particular, the EA team should pay attention to the Business Transformation Readiness Assessment and the Business Value Assessment.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Scenario: Zephyr Enterprises

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question

Zephyr Enterprises specializes in the development of wind turbine blades for use in large-scale commercial wind energy production systems. Zephyr has manufacturing facilities located in Palm Springs, California, Omaha, Nebraska, and Winnipeg, Ontario. Each of these plants supplies a different manufacturer that builds and sells complete systems. The turbine blades are custom engineered to meet each manufacturers design specifications.

Until recently, most turbine blades were fabricated manually using molded fiber-reinforced plastics. However, recent improvements in composite materials, coupled with enhanced automated methods for precision application of materials during the molding process, have led to significant reduction in weight, increase in strength, and greatly improved blade longevity. Zephyr has pioneered the development of a proprietary automated process for continuous extrusion of the turbine blades. Patents have been filed to protect the process, but certain trade secrets must be closely guarded.

Zephyr has a mature Enterprise Architecture organization that is supported by a cross-functional Architecture Review Board. The Chief Information Officer and the Chief Operating Officer co-sponsor the Enterprise Architecture program.

Zephyr has used TOGAF and its Architecture Development Method (ADM) to develop its automated manufacturing processes and systems that are used to design, manufacture, and test the blade assemblies. They have recently updated to

TOGAF 9 and have adapted the Zephyr Enterprise Architecture to closely follow the TOGAF 9 framework. All of Zephyrs IT architects have been trained and certified on TOGAF 9.Recently, an architecture project was completed that defined

a standard approach for controlling the Automated Test System that is used at each plant to perform final quality assurance tests on each completed blade assembly. The Manufacturing Architecture Board approved the plan for immediate

implementation at each plant.

An Architecture Contract was developed that detailed the work needed to implement and deploy the new Automated Test System controller. The Chief Engineer, sponsor of the activity, has expressed concern that a uniform process be

employed at each site to ensure consistency.

Refer to the Zephyr Enterprises Scenario:

You have been assigned by the Lead Architect for the Automated Test System controller project to conduct Compliance Assessments at each manufacturing plant.

During the course of the assessment at the Omaha plant, you discover that the Distributed Data Acquisition System they have purchased uses a proprietary Remote Procedure Call (RPC) that utilizes kernel mode threads instead of the user

mode threads that are specified in the Architecture Definition Document. In all other respects, the system meets the requirements stated in the Architecture Definition Document and seems to perform correctly.

You have been asked to describe the compliance of this system for the final report.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. You observe that all of the features in the Architecture Definition Document have been implemented in accordance with the specification, except for the RPC mechanism. Your recommendation is that the system be described as conformant.

B. You observe that the system has many features in common with the Architecture Definition Document, and those features have been implemented in accordance with the specification. However, you note that the RPC mechanism has been implemented using features that are not covered by the specification. Your recommendation is that the system be described as consistent.

C. You observe that the implementation of the RPC mechanism has no features in common with the Architecture Definition Document, therefore the question of its conformance should not be considered. Your recommendation is that the system be described as consistent.

D. You observe that the system meets most of the requirements stated in the Architecture Definition Document and appears to work correctly. However, you note that the RPC mechanism has not been implemented according to the specification. Your recommendation is that the system be described as non-conformant.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Scenario: Rollins Manufacturing

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question

Rollins Manufacturing is a major supplier in the automotive industry, headquartered in Cleveland, Ohio with manufacturing plants in Chicago, Sao Paulo, Stuttgart, Yokohama, and Seoul. Each of these plants has been operating its own Manufacturing Requirements Planning (MRPII) system, production scheduling, and custom developed applications that drive the automated production equipment at each plant.

Rollins is implementing lean manufacturing principles to minimize waste and improve the efficiency of all of its production operations. During a recent exercise held for internal quality improvement, it was determined that a significant reduction in process waste could be achieved by replacing the current MRPII and scheduling systems with a common Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system located in the Cleveland data center. This central system would provide support to each of the plants replacing the functionality in the existing systems. It would also eliminate the need for full data centers at each of the plant facilities. A reduced number of IT staff could support the remaining applications. In some cases, a third-party contractor could provide those staff.

The Rollins Enterprise Architecture department has been operating for several years and has mature, well-developed architecture governance and development processes that are strongly based on TOGAF 9.At a recent meeting, the Architecture Review Board approved a Request for Architecture Work from the Chief Engineer of Global Manufacturing Operations who is the project sponsor. The request covered the initial architectural investigations and the development of a comprehensive architecture to plan the transformation.

The Common ERP Deployment architecture project team has now been formed, and the project team has been asked to develop an Architecture Vision that will achieve the desired outcomes and benefits. Some of the plant managers have expressed concern about the security and reliability of driving their MRPII and production scheduling from a central system located in Cleveland. The Chief Engineer wants to know how these concerns can be addressed.

Refer to the Rollins Manufacturing Scenario

You are serving as the Lead Enterprise Architect of the newly-formed Common ERP Deployment architecture project team.

As the Common ERP Deployment architecture project team assembles for its initial meeting, many of the participants have voiced concerns about the sweeping scope of the initiative. Others are confident that they know a solution that will work. During the meeting, a number of alternative recommendations for how to proceed are put forward by members of the team. You have been asked to select the most appropriate recommendation to ensure that the team evaluates different approaches to the problem and clarifies the requirements for the architecture.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. The team should hold a series of interviews at each of the manufacturing plants using the business scenario technique. This will then enable them to identify and document the characteristics of the architecture from the business requirements.

B. The team should exercise due diligence and carefully research vendor literature and conduct a series of briefings with vendors that are on the current approved supplier list. Based on the findings from the research, the team should define a preliminary target Architecture Vision. The team should then use that model to build consensus among the key stakeholders.

C. The team should create Baseline and Target Architectures for each of the manufacturing plants. A gap analysis between the architectures will then validate the approach, and determine the Transition Architecture needed to achieve the target state.

D. The team should conduct a pilot project that will enable vendors on the short list to demonstrate potential solutions that will access the concerns of the stakeholders. Based on the findings of that pilot project, a complete set of requirements can be developed that will arrive the evolution of the architecture.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Scenario: Vittronics Ltd.

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question

Vittronics Ltd. is a leading medical device manufacturer in the highly competitive market for Migraine Headache Pain Management (MHPM) devices. These tiny wireless devices are implanted in the brain and can deliver a precise electric shock when the wearable Pain Control Unit (PCU) detects an increase in stress induced by the onset of a migraine headache.

This technology will be a breakthrough in the treatment of this condition, and several competitors are striving to be the first to introduce a product into the market. However, all of them must demonstrate the effectiveness and safety of their products in a set of clinical trials that will satisfy the regulatory requirements of the countries in the target markets.

The Enterprise Architecture group at Vittronics has been engaged in an architecture development project to create a Secure Private Immersive Collaborative Environment (SPICE) that will allow researchers at its product development laboratories worldwide to share information about their independent clinical trials.

The Vittronics Enterprise Architecture group is a mature organization that has been utilizing TOGAF for several years. They have recently upgraded to TOGAF 9. The Vittronics Architecture Development Method (VADM) is strictly based on the TOGAF 9 Architecture Development Method (ADM) with extensions required to support current good manufacturing practices and good laboratory practices in their target markets.

The SPICE project team has now completed the Business, Information Systems, and Technology Architecture phases and has produced a complete set of deliverables for each phase. Due to the highly sensitive nature of the information that is managed in SPICE, special care was taken to ensure that each architecture domain included an examination of the security and privacy issues that are relevant for each domain. A corresponding SPICE Security Architecture has been defined.

The Executive Vice President for Clinical Research is the sponsor of the Enterprise Architecture activity. He has stated that the changes to the SPICE architecture will need to be rolled out on a geographic basis that will minimize disruptions to ongoing clinical trials. The work will need to be done in stages and rolled out in geographical regions.

Refer to the Vittronics Ltd Scenario

You are serving as the Lead Architect for the SPICE project team.

You have been asked to recommend the approach to identify the work packages that will be included in the Transition Architecture(s).

Based en TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. Create an Implementation Factor Assessment and Deduction Matrix and a Consolidated Gaps, Solutions and Dependencies Matrix. For each gap, identify a proposed solution and classify it as new development, purchased solution, or based on an existing product. Group similar solutions together to form work packages. Identify dependencies between work packages factoring in the clinical trial schedules. Regroup the packages into a set of Capability Increments scheduled into a series of Transition Architectures and documented in an Architecture Definition Increments Table.

B. Determine the set of Solution Building Blocks required by identifying which Solution Building Blocks need to be developed and which need to be procured. Eliminate any duplicate building blocks. Group the remaining Solution Building Blocks together to create the work packages using a CRLO matrix. Rank the work packages in terms of cost and select the most cost-effective options for inclusion in a series of Transition Architectures. Schedule the roll out of the work packages to be sequential across the geographic regions.

C. Use a Consolidated Gaps, Solutions and Dependencies Matrix as a planning tool. For each gap classify whether the solution is either a new development, purchased solution, or based on an existing product. Group the similar solutions together to define the work packages. Regroup the work packages into a set of Capability Increments to transition to the Target Architecture taking into account the schedule for clinical trials.

D. Group the Solution Building Blocks from a Consolidated Gaps, Solutions and Dependencies Matrix into a set of work packages. Using the matrix as a planning tool, regroup the work packages to account for dependencies. Sequence the work packages into the Capability Increments needed to achieve the Target Architecture. Schedule the rollout one region at a time. Document the progression of the enterprise architecture using an Enterprise Architecture State Evolution table.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Worldwide Mobile is a mobile telecommunications company formed through a series of mergers and acquisitions. They are yet to fully integrate the customer service systems for the most recent acquisitions, and as result, customer service has been a major concern for the Chief Technology Officer.

Results for the last two quarters have shown that Average Revenue Per User (ARPU) and the customer retention (Churn) rate have fallen below the industry average. The Corporate Marketing group has published some new finding about customer satisfaction. The customers appear to be switching to Air Light, a competitor, because of superior customer service. WorldwideMobile actually has better coverage in nearly all markets than Air Light, and good roaming agreement that keep rates low for business travellers. But customer satisfaction has remained low. The Business Strategy group and the Enterprise Architecture group have conducted a high-level project to develop the enterprise-wide strategic plan. They have developed a business scenario which contains a good conceptual model of what needs to be done and also identifies the key requirements. This was used in preparing the proposal presented to the Executive Council and the Corporate Board. The planning for the program has been underway for several months. WorldwideMobile has selected TOGAF 9 as the basis for its Enterprise Architecture. The Corporate Board has approved funding for a multi-million Euro conversion to transition to a packaged Customer Service System. It is anticipated that the overall program will take five years to complete, but there are some tactical projects that can commence immediately to address the situation. The Executive Council has stated that the program should define specific initiatives to enable each regional business units to create an implementation of the Customer Service System. The implementation must meet the needs of the business unit and still provide the information needed to enable major improvements to the customer.

Refer to WorldwideMobile-2 Scenario

You are serving as the Lead Architect for the Performance and Integrity project of the Customer Service System program.

The project has been chartered to address the architecture(s) required to support the Customer Service System from an infrastructure perspective. At present time, the project team is conducting an architecture development project that is

focused on the customer self service capability, which was defined as part of the earlier strategic planning activities. This capability will enable customers to access their accounts, pay bills, request account reviews, and provision services

from any web-enabled device.

The project team has gathered information about the self-service capability, developed a business scenario, and used the results to define an Architecture Vision for achieving the capability.

You have been asked to recommend the course of action to complete the project.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is best answer?

A. In the remaining architecture definition phases, the project team should map out the capability in the Technology domain. In the Phases E and F, the capability should be broken down into a set of Solution Building Blocks that define the Target Architecture. Where possible, the Solution Building Blocks should be drawn from the Architecture Repository. The completed Architecture Definition Document and the Implementation and Migration Plan will be submitted for approval. Upon approval, the architecture team will conduct Compliance Assessments to ensure that the Target Architecture is properly implemented.

B. In the remaining architecture definition phases, the project team should map out the capability across the Business, Information System and Technology domains. In the Phases E and F, the capability should be broken down into a set of increments that are sequenced into Transition Architectures that will lead to the realization of the Target Architecture. The resulting Solution Building Blocks will then provide the basis for the capability increment solutions. The complete Architecture Definition Document and the Implementation and Migration Plan will be submitted for approval. Upon approval, the architecture team will oversee the implementation process through monitoring Architecture Contracts and by conduction Compliance Assessments.

C. In the remaining architecture definition phases, the project team should map out the capability across the Business, Information System and Technology domains. In the Phases E and F, the capability should be broken down into a set of increments that defines the Target Architecture. The Solution Building Blocks will provide the basis for the capability increment solutions. The complete Architecture Definition Document and the Implementation and Migration Plan will be submitted for approval. Upon approval, the architecture team will oversee the implementation process through monitoring Architecture Contracts and by conducting Compliance Assessments.

D. The remaining architecture definition work should be focused on mapping out the technology and infrastructure capability in the Technology domain. In Phases E and F, the capability should be broken down into a set of Solution Building Blocks that will be implemented to realize the Target Architecture. The Solution Building Blocks will provide the basis for the completed Architecture Definition Document that will be submitted for approval. Upon approval, the implementation team will conduct Compliance Assessments to ensure that the self-service capability is compliant with the overall Enterprise Architecture.

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Scenario: AGEX Inc.

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question

AGEX is a large, global commodities trading company which has been growing rapidly through a series of acquisitions.

Each new business is performing well in its markets. However, the lack of integration between headquarters and the business units has increasingly caused problems in the handling of customer and financial information. The inability to share information across businesses has resulted in lost opportunities to “leverage the synergies” that had been intended when the businesses were acquired. At present, each business unit maintains its own applications. Despite an earlier initiative to install a common application to manage customer, products, supplier, and inventory information, each business unit has different ways of defining each of these core elements and has customized the common application to the point where the ability to exchange information is difficult, costly, and error-prone.

As a result, AGEX has begun implementing a single Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system to consolidate information from several applications that exist across the lines of business. The Corporate Board is concerned that the new ERP system must be able to manage and safeguard customer information in a manner that meets or exceeds the legal requirements of the countries in which the company operates. This will be an increasingly important capability as the company expands its online services offered to clients and trading partners.

The CIO has formed an Enterprise Architecture department, and one of the primary goals in its charter is to coordinate efforts between the ERP implementation team and the business unit personnel who will be involved in the migration process. The CIO has also formed a cross-functional Architecture Review Board to oversee and govern the architecture.

After reviewing the available alternatives, and based on recommendations from the ERP vendor, AGEX has selected TOGAF 9 as the basis for its Enterprise Architecture program.

The CIO has endorsed this choice with the full support of top management.

Refer to the AGEX Inc. Scenario

You are serving as the Chief Architect.

As part of the process for establishing the Enterprise Architecture department, you have decided to create a set of principles to guide the activities.

You have been asked to recommend the best approach for this work.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. You define a set of principles that support the preferred best practices embodied in the Enterprise Architecture department charter. You publish the principles on the corporate intranet to ensure widespread acceptance and compliance. You then schedule regular periodic Compliance Assessments with individual business units to check that they have made satisfactory progress toward meeting the objectives and conditions embodied in the principles.

B. You gather information from credible industry sources in the commodities business. Based on that, you assess current trends and apply that to defining a set of principles that embody best practices. You select architecture principles that do not conflict with each other and that should be stable. You ensure that all the principles are realistic and avoid including principles that are obvious.

C. You examine the mission statements for AGEX and each of its businesses, together with the corporate value statements. Based on that, you define a set of principles and review with the CIO. When developing the principles you ensure that they actively promote the alignment of IT with the business strategies and initiatives of AGEX. You then seek the endorsement of the CIO and senior management.

D. You examine the mission statements for AGEX and each of its businesses, together with the corporate value statements. Based on that, you work with the Architecture Review Board to define the principles. When developing the principles you ensure that they actively promote the alignment of IT with the AGEX business strategies. You then run a series of reviews with all the relevant stakeholders, including senior management, ensuring their support.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Scenario:

Please read this scenario prior to answering the Question

You are serving as the Lead Architect for the enterprise architecture team at the prime contractor for the Dreadnought Unmanned Aircraft System program.

Over the course of this contract, the company has grown rapidly by acquisition and has inherited numerous different procurement processes and related IT systems. The decision has been made to consolidate and reduce redundant

procurement processes and systems. The CEO has announced that the company will seek to leverage higher volume discounts and lower related IT support costs by instituting a preferred supplier program.

TOGAF 9 Is used for internal Enterprise Architecture activities, with an iterative approach for executing Architecture Development Method (ADM) projects.

At present, there are no particularly useful architectural assets related to this initiative, so all assets need to be acquired and customized or created from scratch. The company prefers to implement commercial off the shelf package

applications with little customization. The CIO, who is the project sponsor, has stated that she is not concerned about preserving existing processes or systems.

The architect-re development project has put in place Its Architecture Capability for this project and has started a number of iteration cycles to develop the Architecture. Some tasks to address concerns related to the Business Architecture

have been completed. The next immediate task is to address the Information Systems Architectures.

The Information Systems Architectures must address stakeholder concerns such as:

1.

Which procurement-related business processes are supported by zero, one, or many existing applications?

2.

What non-procurement applications will need to be integrated with any new procurement applications?

3.

What data will need to be shared?

Refer to the Scenario

[Note: You may need to refer to TOGAF 9 Chapter 35 in order to answer this question.]

You have been asked to identify the most appropriate catalogs, matrices, and diagrams for this situation.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. in the early iterations of Architecture development, you would describe the Baseline Application Architecture with a System/Function matrix, and describe the Baseline Data Architecture using a Data Entity/Data Component catalog. In the later Iterations of the Architecture Definition, you would describe the Target Application Architecture using Application Communication diagrams and an Application Interaction matrix, and describe the Target Data Architecture with a System/Data matrix.

B. In the early iterations of Architecture development, you would describe the Target Application Architecture with Application Communication diagrams and an Application Interaction matrix, and describe the Target Data Architecture with a System/Data matrix. In the later iterations of Architecture development, you would describe the Baseline Application Architecture with an Application and User Location diagram and a System/Function matrix, and describe the Baseline Data Architecture with a Data Entity/Data Component catalog.

C. In the early iterations of Architecture development, you would describe the Target Application Architecture with Application Communication diagrams and an Application Interaction matrix, and describe the Target Data Architecture with a Data Entity/Business Function matrix and a System/Data matrix. In the later iterations of Architecture development, you would describe the Baseline Application Architecture with a System/Function matrix, and describe the Baseline Data Architecture with a Data Entity/Data Component catalog.

D. In the early iterations of Architecture development, you would describe the Baseline Application Architecture with a Technology Portfolio catalog, and describe the Baseline Data Architecture with a Data diagram. In the later iterations of Architecture development, you would describe the Target Application Architecture with a System/Technology matrix, and describe the Target Data Architecture with a Data Dissemination diagram.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Scenario:

Please read this scenario prior to answering the Question

You have been appointed as a consultant to the Lead Enterprise Architect of an international agricultural company that exports bulbs, flowers and seeds worldwide. The company has its headquarters in the Netherlands, and has sales and

distribution centers in over 30 countries worldwide. Several of these centers include administrative, manufacturing, and research facilities.

To achieve full integration of their research capabilities with their development centers located in various climate zones, the company wants to develop strong self-directed teams in each location. It also wants to define new business models

that are profitable while reducing their impact on the environment. The management team is deeply committed to ensuring that the company is a world leader in socially responsible seed development with a business strategy that focuses on

profitability through environmentally friendly operating processes.

The international operations of the company are subject to legal and regulatory requirements for each country where they operate. The production of genetically modified seeds has governmental controls that are strictly enforced and

compliance is critical. Recently a competitor was heavily fined for violating the regulations in a country where it was developing pest-resistant seeds.

The Governing Board is concerned about the risks posed in this complex global environment, and as a result has approved the expenditure of resources to establish an Enterprise Architecture program. They have requested to be informed

about the status of projects that could impact regulatory compliance. They also want to enable the corporate legal staff and auditors to analyze proposed architectures to ensure that they are within the legal guidelines for a given location. In

addition, the research organization should be able to see that the architecture is appropriate for its needs.

TOGAF 9 has been mandated as the framework for the development and evolution of the Enterprise Architecture practice. The Preliminary Phase has been completed to establish the enterprise architecture capability for this project.

Refer to the Scenario

You have been asked to recommend an approach that would enable the development of an architecture that addresses the needs of the Governing Board, legal staff, auditors and the research organization.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. You recommend that each project architecture activity is developed using a consistent modeling approach that is uniform across all architecture projects. Each architecture should be defined based on this fixed set of models so that all concerned parties can examine the models to ensure that their issues and concerns have been addressed.

B. You recommend that a special report be created for those groups that have sufficient power and level of interest. This report should summarize the key features of the architecture with respect to the particular location. Each of these reports should reflect the stakeholders1 requirements.

C. You recommend that a set of models be created for each project architecture that can be used to ensure that the system will be compliant with the local regulations. Stakeholders should then view the models to verify that their concerns have been properly addressed.

D. You recommend that a stakeholder map be developed. This will allow the architects to define groups of stakeholders that share common concerns. A set of views should be defined to address the concerns for each group of stakeholders. Architecture models should then be created for each view to address the stakeholders\’ concerns.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Scenario:

Please read this scenario prior to answering the Question

You are serving as the Chief Architect for a large, global commodities trading company which has been growing rapidly through a series of acquisitions.

Each business is performing well in its markets. However, the lack of integration between headquarters and the business units has increasingly caused problems in the handling of customer and financial information. The inability to share

information across businesses has resulted in lost opportunities to “leverage the synergies” that had been intended when the businesses were acquired. At present, each business unit maintains its own applications. Despite an earlier initiative

to install a common application to manage customer, products, supplier, and inventory information, each business unit has different ways of defining each of these core elements and has customized the common application to the point where

the ability to exchange information is difficult, costly, and error-prone.

As a result, the company has made the decision to introduce a single enterprise-wide application to consolidate information from several applications that exist across the lines of business. The application will be used by all business units and

accessed by suppliers through well defined interfaces.

The Corporate Board is concerned that the new application must be able to manage and safeguard confidential customer information in a secure manner that meets or exceeds the legal requirements of the countries in which the company

operates. This will be an increasingly important capability as the company expands its online services in cooperation with its trading partners.

The CIO has formed an Enterprise Architecture department, and one of the primary goals in its charter is to coordinate efforts between the implementation team and the business unit personnel who will be involved in the migration process.

The CIO has also formed a cross-functional Architecture Board to oversee and govern the architecture. The company has an existing team of security architects.

TOGAF 9 has been selected for use for the Enterprise Architecture program. The CIO has endorsed this choice with the full support of top management.

Refer to the Scenario

In the Preliminary Phase you need to define suitable policies and ensure that the company has the appropriate capability to address the concerns of the Corporate Board.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. You start by clarifying the intent that the Board has for raising these concerns. This enables you to understand the implications of the concern in terms of regulatory requirements and the potential impact on current business goals and objectives. You propose that a security architect or security architecture team be allocated to develop a comprehensive security architecture and that this be considered an additional domain architecture.

B. You evaluate the implications of the Board\’s concerns by examining the security and regulatory impacts on business goals, business drivers and objectives. Based on your understanding, you then update the current security policy to include an emphasis on the concerns. You define architecture principles to form constraints on the architecture work to be undertaken in the project. You then allocate a security architect to ensure that security considerations are included in the architecture planning for all domains.

C. You identify and document the security and regulatory requirements for the application and the data being collected. You ensure that written policies are put in place to address the requirements, and that they are communicated across the organization, together with appropriate training for key employees. You identify constraints on the architecture and communicate those to the architecture team. You establish an agreement with the security architects defining their role

within the ongoing architecture project.

D. You evaluate the implications of the concerns raised by the Corporate Board in terms of regulatory requirements and their impact on business goals and objectives. Based on this understanding, you then issue a Request for Architecture Work to commence an architecture development project to develop a solution that will address the concerns. You allocate a security architect to oversee the implementation of the new application that is being developed.

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Scenario:

Please read this scenario prior to answering the Question

Your role is that of Lead Enterprise Architect within a vacation property management firm that has been growing through acquisition. The firm manages over 200 resort properties across North America. Many of the resort properties use the

same internal IT systems that they used before they were acquired. Until recently, the only requirement that has been placed on each property is that they use a standard financial reporting system to report their financial results to the

headquarters on a weekly basis.

The CEO has stated his concerns about the inefficiencies of the current approach and identified the need to change. He has defined a new strategic vision that will enhance the business by standardizing its operations across the network to

provide consolidated financial, human resources, logistics, sales and marketing, and yield management. He has also stated that he expects results by the end of the current fiscal year.

These changes will provide the company with improved utilization of its capacity and more efficient operations. The addition of a corporate-wide data warehouse will provide analytics that will enable the marketing group to improve its ability to

target advertising into key markets to improve yields.

The firm has a mature enterprise architecture practice and uses TOGAF 9 as the method and guiding framework. The CIO is the sponsor of the activity. In planning this change, the Chief Architect engaged the services of a well-known

consulting firm that specializes in business strategy. An initial study has been conducted to identify the strategic changes needed to implement the CEO\’s vision. This recently completed with approval of a strategic architecture encompassing

the entire firm, including detailed requirements and recommendations.

Based on the recommendations from the initial study, the firm has taken the decision to adopt a packaged suite of integrated applications that is tailored to the needs of the hospitality industry.

Refer to the scenario

You have been asked by the Chief Architect to justify the best approach for architecture development to realize the CEO\’s vision.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. You recommend that the target architecture is defined first, followed by transition planning. This is because the vision is well understood and the strategic architecture agreed. This will ensure that the current problems and inefficiencies of the baseline architecture are not carried forward, and that the proposed solution addresses the requirements identified in the initial study.

B. You recommend that the team focus on architecture definition, with a specific emphasis on understanding the strategic change parameters of the business strategy. Once understood, the team will be in the best position to identify the requirements, drivers, issues, and constraints for this engagement. You would ensure that the target architecture addresses non-functional requirements so as to ensure the target architecture is robust and secure.

C. You recommend that the team focus on defining the target architecture by going through the architecture definition phases (B-D). This is because the initial study identified the need to change. This will ensure that the change can be defined in a structured manner and address the requirements needed to realize the vision.

D. You recommend that this engagement define the baseline Technology Architecture first in order to assess the current infrastructure capacity and capability. Then the focus should be on transition planning and architecture deployment. This will identify retirements to ensure that the projects are sequenced in an optimal fashion so as to realize the vision.

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Scenario:

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question

You are serving as the Lead Enterprise Architect at a major supplier in the automotive industry. The company is headquartered in Cleveland, Ohio with manufacturing plants across the United States, Brazil, Germany, Japan and South Korea.

Each of these plants has been operating its own planning and production scheduling systems, as well as custom developed applications that drive the automated production equipment at each plant.

The company is implementing lean manufacturing principles to minimize waste and improve the efficiency of all of its production operations. During a recent exercise held for internal quality improvement, it was determined that a significant

reduction in process waste could be achieved by replacing the current planning and scheduling systems with a common Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system located in the Cleveland data center. This central system would provide

support to each of the plants replacing the functionality in the existing systems. It would also eliminate the need for full data centers at each of the plant facilities. A reduced number of IT staff could support the remaining applications. In some

cases, a third-party contractor could provide those staff.

The Enterprise Architecture department has been operating for several years and has mature, well-developed architecture governance and development processes that are strongly based on TOGAF 9.

At a recent meeting, the Architecture Board approved a Request for Architecture Work sponsored by the Chief Engineer of Global Manufacturing Operations. The request covered the initial architectural investigations and the development of a

comprehensive architecture to plan the transformation.

The Common ERP Deployment architecture project team has now been formed, and the project team has been asked to develop an Architecture Vision that will achieve the desired outcomes and benefits. Some of the plant managers have

expressed concern about the security and reliability of diving their planning and production scheduling from a remote centralized system. The Chief Engineer wants to know how these concerns can be addressed.

Refer to the Scenario

[Note: You should assume that the company has adopted the example set of principles that are listed and defined in TOGAF 9, Section 23.6.] One of the earliest initiatives in the Enterprise Architecture program was the definition of a set of

architecture principles. These now need to be updated to address the concerns raised.

You have been asked to select a set of principles most appropriate for guiding the team to define a robust solution.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. Common-use Applications, Control Technical Diversity, Ease of Use, Interoperability, Data is Shared, Data is Accessible, Data Security

B. Business Continuity, Common-use Applications, Maximize Benefit to the Enterprise, Data is Shared, Data is Accessible, Data Security

C. Technology Independence, Data Trustee, Information Management is Everybody\’s Business, IT Responsibility, Responsive Change Management

D. Service-orientation, Responsive Change Management, Business Continuity, Data is Accessible, Data Security

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Scenario:

Please read this scenario prior to answering the Question

You have been assigned the role of Lead Enterprise Architect for a manufacturing firm that specializes in musical instruments. The firm has been established for over 100 years, operating in North America for most of that time. In the last ten

years, the firm has expanded into European markets and will soon establish a market in Latin America. A future expansion into the Asia Pacific region is also planned.

The firm is organized into several business units that each focus on manufacturing particular families of instruments such as brass, woodwind, and percussion. Each business unit has acquired other producers to expand its manufacturing capacity. This has resulted in a complex environment with a high diversity of business and manufacturing systems. The Enterprise Architecture (EA) program within the firm has been functioning for several years. It has made significant progress in consolidating the technology portfolio and establishing key standards. The CIO and the COO are pint sponsors of the EA program. The EA program is mature, with an active Architecture Board and a well-defined architecture process and standard content templates based on the TOGAF 9 Architecture Content Framework. The EA process framework is well coordinated with the PMO, Systems Development, and Operations functions.

The firm has completed a strategic plan to reorganize its Sales and Marketing organization according to the four target geographic markets. One of the goals of this reorganization is to improve the ability of Marketing to collect more meaningful

market analytics that will enable each sector to better address market needs with effective marketing campaigns and global product presence.

A Request for Architecture Work to address the goals of the reorganization has been approved. As the architecture team commences its work, the CIO has expressed concerns about whether the firm will be able to adapt to the proposed

architecture and how to manage the associated risks.

Refer to the Scenario

You have been asked how to address the concerns of the CIO.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. In Phase B, the team should create a set of views that will enable them to identify the factors that will influence the successful introduction of the architecture into the organization. There should then be an assessment of each factor on a maturity scale that will allow the team to gauge the urgency, readiness, and degree of difficulty to fix. These factors can then be used to assess the initial risks associated with the proposed architecture.

B. In Phase A the team should analyze their risk by completing an Implementation Factor Assessment and Deduction Matrix to identify the particular risks associated with the implementation and deployment. The matrix should include a list of factors to be considered, their descriptions, and constraints that should be taken into account. These factors can then used to assess the initial risks associated with the proposed architecture.

C. In Phase A, the team should use the Business Transformation Readiness Assessment technique to identify the factors that will influence the successful introduction of the architecture into the organization. The assessment should include determining the readiness rating for each factor based on a maturity scale that will allow the team to gauge the urgency, readiness, and degree of difficulty to fix. These factors can then used to assess the initial risks associated with the proposed architecture.

D. In Phase A, the team should conduct a Business Scenario to identify the stakeholders\’ concerns and the resulting retirements. Once the retirements have been identified, they can be assessed in terms of their risks. The risks should be evaluated in terms of how they could be avoided, transferred, or mitigated. Any risks that cannot be resolved should be identified as residual risks and their disposition should be decided by the Architecture Board.

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Scenario:

Please read this scenario prior to answering the Question

You are the Lead Architect for a firm that manufactures ball bearings used in industrial equipment applications. They have manufacturing operations in several cities in the United States, Germany, and the United Kingdom. The firm has

traditionally allowed each manufacturing plant to drive its own production planning systems. Each plant has its own custom Materials Requirements Planning, Master Production Scheduling, Bill of Materials, and Shop Floor Control systems.

“Just In Time” manufacturing techniques are used to minimize wastes caused by excessive inventory and work in process. The increasingly competitive business environment has compelled the firm to improve its business capability to be

more responsive to the needs of industrial customers. To support this capability, the firm has decided to implement an Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) solution that will enable it to better coordinate its manufacturing capacity to match the

demands for its products across all plants. In addition, there are also new European regulations coming into force to which their manufacturing processes must conform in the next six months.

As part of the implementation process, the Enterprise Architecture (EA) department has begun to implement an architecture process based on TOGAF 9. The CIO is the sponsor of the activity. The Chief Architect has directed that the

program should include formal modeling using the Architecture Content Framework and the TOGAF Content Metamodel. This will enable support for the architecture tooling that the firm uses for its EA program.

The Chief Architect has stated that in order to model the complex manufacturing process it will be necessary to model processes that are event-driven. Also, in order to consolidate applications across several data centers it will be necessary

to model the location of IT assets. In particular, the end goal is to have the single ERP application running in a single data center.

Currently the project is in the Preliminary Phase, and the architects are tailoring the Architecture Development Method (ADM) and Architecture Content Framework to fit into the corporate environment.

Refer to the Scenario

You have been asked to recommend a response to the Chief Architect\’s request to tailor the TOGAF Content Metamodel.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. You recommend that the architecture team incorporate the Process Modeling and Infrastructure Consolidation extensions into their tailored Content Metamodel. As the environment is process-centric this will enable them to model the manufacturing processes and store information to support regulatory compliance. It also includes views useful for managing the consolidation of applications into a single data center.

B. You recommend that the architecture team incorporate the Process Modeling and Governance extensions into their tailored Content Metamodel. This is suitable as this is a significant IT change that will impact its operational models. This will ensure that they include specific entities and attributes that will allow them to model the event-driven nature of the manufacturing processes more precisely.

C. You recommend that the architecture team incorporates the Governance and Motivation Extensions into their tailored Content Metamodel. This would allow modeling of the target milestones they want to achieve with this consolidation of application to a single data center. These extensions will also enable demonstration of regulatory compliance for the manufacturing process.

D. You recommend that the architecture team incorporates the Data and Services Extensions into their tailored Content Metamodel. This would allow modeling of the location of IT assets and ensure regulatory compliance for the manufacturing process. It will also allow for identification of redundant duplication of capability which will be needed for a successful consolidation to a single data center.

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Which of the following is the most significant reason that domestic governments and international organizations seek to eliminate cartels?

A. The increased sales price reduces the amount of corporate tax revenues payable to the government.

B. True competition keeps prices as low as possible, thus increasing efficiency in the marketplace.

C. Small businesses cannot survive or grow without government protection.

D. The economic stability of developing countries depends on a global free market.

Correct Answer: B

A cartel is an organization of sellers (e.g., the oil cartel OPEC) who undertake joint action to maximize members\’ profits by controlling the supply, and therefore the price, of their product. Under the laws of many nations, such collusive conduct is illegal when engaged in by firms subject to those laws. The reason is that, as a result of the monopolistic and anticompetitive practices of cartels, supply is lower, prices are high, competition is restrained, and the relevant industry is less efficient. Accordingly, governmental and international organizations seek to protect consumers and the health of the domestic and global economy through anti-cartel efforts.


Question 2:

When a multinational firm decides to sell its products abroad, one of the risks the firm faces is that the government of the foreign market charges the firm with dumping. Dumping occurs when

A. The same product sells at different prices in different countries.

B. A firm charges less than the cost to make the product so as to enter or win a market.

C. Lower quality versions of the product are sold abroad so as to be affordable.

D. Transfer prices are set artificially high so as to minimize tax payments.

Correct Answer: B

Dumping is an unfair trade practice that violates international agreements. It occurs when a firmcharges a price (1) lower than that in its home market or (2) less than the cost to make the product. Dumping may be done to penetrate a market or as a result of export subsidies.


Question 3:

A global firm

A. Has achieved economies of scale in the firm\’s domestic market.

B. Plans, operates, and coordinates business globally.

C. Relies on indirect export.

D. Tends to rely more on one product market.

Correct Answer: B

According to Kotler, “Global firms plan, operate, and coordinate their activities on a worldwide basis.” Thus, a global firm secures cost or product differentiation advantages not available to domestic firms.


Question 4:

A firm expands into international markets to

A. Be in foreign markets.

B. Eliminate foreign competition

C. Pursue new, higher-profit opportunities.

D. Preclude piracy of the firm\’s products.

Correct Answer: C

A firm may decide to go abroad for many reasons, for example, to respond to a competitive challenge in its home country by another global firm, to pursue opportunities yielding greater profits, to achieve economies of scale, to diversify, or to follow customers who need international service.


Question 5:

A firm wishing to become global must consider how many national markets to enter. A firm should enter fewer national markets when

A. Communication adaptation costs are low.

B. The product need not be adapted.

C. Entry costs are low.

D. The first countries chosen are heavily populated and have high incomes.

Correct Answer: D

According to Ayal and Zif, the following are factors indicating that few national markets should be entered:

(1)

entry costs are high;

(2)

market control costs are high;

(3)

product adaptation costs are high;

(4)

communication adaptation costs are high;

(5)

the first countries selected have large populations, high incomes, and high income growth;

(6)

a dominant firm can erect high entry barriers.


Question 6:

The least risky method of entering a market in a foreign country is by

A. Indirect exports.

B. Licensing.

C. Direct exports.

D. Direct investments.

Correct Answer: A

An indirect export strategy operates through intermediaries, such as home-country merchants who buy and resell the product, home-country agents who negotiate transactions with foreign buyers fora commission, cooperatives that represent groups of sellers, and export-management firms that receive fees for administering the firm\’s export efforts. Indirect export requires lower investment than direct export and is less risky because of the intermediaries\’ expertise.


Question 7:

An advantage of a direct investment strategy when entering a foreign market is

A. Reduction in the capital at risk.

B. Shared control and responsibility.

C. Assurance of access when the foreign country imposes domestic content rules.

D. Avoidance of interaction with the local bureaucracy.

Correct Answer: C

Direct investment has many advantages:

(1)

cheaper materials or labor,

(2)

receipt of investment incentives from the host government, (3) a strong relationship with interested parties in the host country, (4) control of the investment,

(5)

a better image in the host country,

(6)

market access when domestic contest rules are in effect. However, direct investment is risky because of exposure to currency fluctuations, expropriation, potentially high exit barriers, and restraints on sending profits out of the country.


Question 8:

A firm that moves from not exporting on a regular basis to establishing plants in foreign countries has

A. Globalized.

B. Nationalized.

C. Glocalized.

D. Internationalized.

Correct Answer: D

The internationalization process is of crucial interest to nations that wish to encourage local firms to grow and to operate globally. According to Swedish researchers, it involves the following steps:

(1)

Lack of regular exports;

(2)

export via independent agents with a few markets, with later expansion to more countries;

(3)

creation of sales subsidiaries in larger markets; (4) establishment of plants in foreign countries.


Question 9:

Which strategy for a global marketing organization is based on a portfolio of national markets?

A. reaction of a division to manage international marketing.

B. A multinational strategy.

C. A global strategy.

D. Creation of an export department

Correct Answer: B

International marketing efforts take three basic forms:creation of an export department, creation of a division to manage international marketing, or global organization. The latter encompasses genuinely worldwide functions, e.g., manufacturing, marketing, finance, and logistics. Thus, worldwide operations are the organization\’s focus, not merely that of a department or division of a national firm. A global organization may follow a multinational, global, or glocal strategy. A multinational strategy adopts a portfolio approach. Its emphasis is on national markets because the need for global integration is not strong. The product is customized for each market and therefore incurs higher production costs. Decision making is primarily local with a minimum of central control. This strategy is most effective given large differences between countries. Also, exchange rate risk is reduced when conducting business in this manner.


Question 10:

Which strategy for a global marketing organization balances local responsiveness and global integration?

A. Global.

B. Multinational.

C. Glocal.

D. Transnational.

Correct Answer: C

A glocal strategy combines some elements of local responsiveness or adaptation with some elements of global integration. Successful telecommunications firms are examples of balancing these elements. Local responsiveness is indicated when local product tastes and preferences, regulations, and barriers are significant. Global integration is indicated when demand is homogeneous and economies of productive scale are large.


Question 11:

The creation of regional free trade zones is a global phenomenon. Trade barriers are lowered in these areas, and other steps are taken to promote economic cooperation. For example, a common currency has been adopted by the nations of:

A. NAFTA.

B. Mercosul.

C. APEC.

D. The European Union.

Correct Answer: D

The European Union (Eli) is a collection of 27 European nations that have lowered trade barriers among member states, and most of the nations share a common currency and trade policy. The euro is the common currency of the European Union.


Question 12:

The three major factors favoring globalization are

A. Cultural, commercial, and technical.

B. Flexibility, proximity, and adaptability.

C. Political, technological, and social.

D. Ambition, positioning, and organization.

Correct Answer: C

The new economy is driven by the digital revolution that facilitates international commerce by providing capabilities that did not exist a relatively few years ago. It is also driven by such political events as the fall of the Soviet Union, the participation of China in the world economic system, the emergence of the European Union, and the creation of other regional free trade zones. These technological and political factors are intertwined with social changes, for example, greater concern for the rights of women and minorities; the advance of multilingualism; and the convergence of tastes in fashion, music, and certain other cultural factors. Accordingly, these factors favor globalization by reducing trade barriers, reducing cost of coordination, increasing economies of scale, and encouraging standardization and global branding.


Question 13:

Which method of expanding into international markets is most likely the riskiest?

A. A local storage and sale arrangement.

B. Local component assembly.

C. Direct investment.

D. Joint venture.

Correct Answer: C

Direct investment has many advantages:

(1)

cheaper materials or labor,

(2)

receipt of investment incentives from the host government, (3) a strong relationship with interested parties in the host country, (4) control of the investment,

(5)

a better image in the host country,

(6)

market access when domestic contest rules are in effect. However, direct investment is risky because of exposure to currency fluctuations, expropriation, potentially high exit barriers, and restraints on sending profits out of the country.


Question 14:

Which of the following is a regional free-trade zone currently limited to South American nations?

A. APEC

B. Mercosul.

C. The Triad Market.

D. NAFTA.

Correct Answer: B

Mercosul is a free-trade agreement among South American nations. They include Argentina, Brazil, Uruguay, and Paraguay. Chile and Bolivia are associate members.


Question 15:

A country has a comparative advantage in international trade when

A. Firms in the country have a lower cost of production because of natural resources.

B. It has an absolute advantage with respect to at least one input to production.

C. Firms in the country have a lower cost of production because of transportation and other geographic factors.

D. It produces whatever it can produce most efficiently.

Correct Answer: D

A country has a comparative advantage when it can achieve a lower cost of production due to a focus on and a cooperative specialization in a particular product. The greatest advantage from trade is obtained when each nation specializes in producing what it can produce most efficiently. If nations specialize and then exchange with others, more is produced and consumed than if each nation tries to be self-sufficient. Specialization of labor is beneficial for individuals; the same principle applies to nations.


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Question 1:

When you modify the building model in a drawing sheet viewport, the changes are automatically updated in the original view.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Which will you NOT use when editing a Titleblock?

A. Text

B. Images

C. Lines

D. Phases

E. Labels

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Which statement about camera view is FALSE?

A. You can modify camera position and target points in a 3D view only

B. You can change the crop region by moving the top, bottom, right, and left clip planes

C. The camera target point defines the initial axis of rotation for a camera view

D. You can modify detail level and ,model graphics style of camera views

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

What is the first step to create a filter in the Filters dialog box?

A. Under Categories, select the Parameter to be included in the filter

B. Select the filter tab in the Visibility/ Graphics dialog box

C. Under Categories, Select the category of the filter to be created

D. Click New to open the Filter Name dialog box

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Which TWO tools help you save steps while placing many window types in a project?

A. Move

B. Split Face

C. Match Type

D. Create Similar

Correct Answer: CD


Question 6:

Which key rotates a component counter clockwise by 90 degrees?

A. SPACEBAR

B. CTRL

C. ENTER

D. ALT

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

What is the first step that you perform to change a section view to a detail view?

A. Select the section or callout symbol

B. On the View menu, click View Properties

C. Create a new section or callout view

D. Open the parent view

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

You can create a walkthrough by placing keyframes to generate a camera path in a plan view.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which tool copies walls or lines at a numerically assigned distance?

A. Align

B. Trim

C. Split

D. Offset

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

What connects the keyframes that you place in a plan view while drawing a walkthrough path?

A. Line

B. Field

C. Spline

D. Dashed line

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Which settings are included when you define a project environment?

A. Line Styles

B. Weather

C. Display

D. Colours

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 12:

Which statement about Detail Views is FALSE?

A. You can only delete them from the parent view

B. By default they appear only in the parent view

C. They automatically have a different view scale from the parent view

D. They appear in a separate section of the Project Brower

E. You create them with the Callout or Section Tool

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which statement is true about generic walls?

A. They consist of panels divided by grid lines

B. They consist of basic wall types placed one over the other

C. They are included in default project template

D. They are composed of parallel layers of materials

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which of the following are detail level settings that display fill patterns of compound walls?

A. Fine

B. Silhouette

C. Medium

D. Wireframe

Correct Answer: AC


Question 15:

What is the first step in creating an alignment constraint?

A. Click the padlock to constrain the alignment

B. Select the first element to align

C. Click modify tab> Edit panel> Align

D. Select the element to move into alignment

Correct Answer: C