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[PDF and VCE] Latest c1000-004 Exam Practice Materials Free Downloading

[PDF and VCE] Latest c1000-004 Exam Practice Materials Free Downloading

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Question 1:

Which two of the following are valid targets for the server-side build command? (Choose two.)

A. generated

B. beandoc

C. codetables

D. messages

E. database

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: https://www.ibm.com/developerworks/community/blogs/5e15a5a7-d4d6-4880-bd9c-e6819061a832/resource/HandyGuideToCuramBuildTargets_v1.0.pdf?lang=en


Question 2:

Suppose that you created a new Process class in your model and performed a build generated command.

What do you need to do next?

A. Implement the methods in the generated impl version of the class.

B. Copy the generated impl class from the build/svr/gen/temp folder into the impl package.

C. Implement the modeled methods in the base class.

D. Create a new class in the impl package.

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

How is the menu option button in this image created?

A. A PAGE-level ACTION_SET with more than 2 ACTION_CONTROLs is added.

B. A PAGE-level ACTION_SET with 1 ACTION_CONTROL containing a LINK element is added.

C. A LIST-level ACTION_SET with 1 ACTION_CONTROL containing a LINK element is added.

D. A LIST-level ACTION_SET with more than 2 ACTION_CONTROLs is added.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Consider the definition of the code table item in the following extract from TrafficLights.ctx:

Which Java statement checks the status of an attribute called trafficLight?

A. if (trafficLight.equals(curam.codetable.TRAFFICLIGHTS.GO)) {

B. if (trafficLight.equals(curam.codetable.TRAFFICLIGHTS.TL1)) {

C. if (trafficLight.equals(curam.codetable.TRAFFICLIGHTS.GREEN)) {

D. if (trafficLight.equals(“Green”)) {

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Consider the entity and struct shown in the model:

A. Type=SampleEntity1, Shadow Type=Key

B. Type=SampleStruct1, Shadow Type=unspecified

C. Type=SampleStruct1, Shadow Type=Key

D. Type=SampleEntity1, Shadow Type=unspecified

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

You want to make a field on a page mandatory. Which task is valid?

A. Configure the Allow_Nulls property of the entity\’s attribute to be set to false.

B. Configure the Require_Mandatory property of the entity\’s attribute to be set to true.

C. Specify the name of the field in the Mandatory_Fields property of the modeled operation\’s argument struct.

D. Write a custom Java function to check for a value being present and specify the function on the Custom_Validation_Function_Name property of the relevant domain definition.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SS8S5A_7.0.9/com.ibm.curam.content.doc/ServerModelling/ctr_CuramServerModellingGuide.html


Question 7:

Which statement about domain definitions is true?

A. To customize a domain named MYDOMAIN, create a new domain definition named MYDOMAIN in your custom package.

B. Domain definitions are a UML concept.

C. All attributes and entities must be based on domain definitions.

D. A Domain may consist of a mixture of primitive types and other domain definitions.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SS8S5A_7.0.9/com.ibm.curam.content.doc/ServerModelling/r_SERMOD_Definitions1DomainDefinitionClasses1.html


Question 8:

What is specified in the .app file for application-wide searching?

A. References to search pages.

B. The name of the parameter that stores the search input value.

C. The name of the server interface that is called to perform the search.

D. A default search input value.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Which two values are valid for he MODE attribute of the MENU element? (Choose two.)

A. EXPANDABLE

B. IN_PAGE_NAVIGATION

C. TRUE

D. FALSE

E. WIZARD_PROGRESS_BAR

Correct Answer: CD


Question 10:

Which task is valid when developing REST APIs in IBM Cúram SPM

A. Run `build database\’ whenever you modify ResourcesConfig.xml.

B. Define operations of type <> in a class of type <>.

C. Document the structs and operations in ResourcesConfig.xml so that the documentation appears in Swagger UI.

D. Specify the mandatory fields in the model.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SS8S5A_7.0.9/com.ibm.curam.content.doc/MSDK/msdk_t_add_mandatory_fields.html


Question 11:

Consider this out-of-the-box (OOTB) façade:

Which statement represents a compliant approach when customizing the mandatory fields of the createAccount() operation?

A. Change the Mandatory Field option for create createAccount() in a custom façade that subclasses AccountFaçade and set Replace_Superclass=No.

B. Change the Mandatory Field option for create createAccount() in a custom façade that does not subclass AccountFaçade.

C. Change the Mandatory Field option for create createAccount() in a custom façade that subclasses AccountFaçade and set Replace_Superclass=Yes.

D. It is not possible a Mandatory field option, so a support case should be raised if the developer thinks it needs to be changed.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which tool do you use?

A. Passport Advantage.

B. Fix Central.

C. RFE Tool.

D. SR Tool.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

“Discouraged access: The type EmployerFactory is not accessible due to restriction on required library EJBServer/components/core/lib/core.jar.”

Which annotation is EmployerFactory declared with?

A. @AccessLevel(DEPRECATED)

B. @AccessLevel(INTERNAL)

C. @AccessLevel(EXTERNAL)

D. @AccessLevel(RESTRICTED)

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

For which two associations can you specify the shadow class types? (Choose two.)

A. Subclassing.

B. Assignable.

C. Foreign Key.

D. Index.

E. Aggregation.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 15:

Examine this UIM code snippet:

How will the field element be displayed in the list?

A. As an editable text field.

B. As a non-editable text field.

C. As a text field hyperlink.

D. As a drop-down list field.

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

If a VRRP Master router is rebooted, what is the default behavior once it comes back online?

A. An election occurs to determine which router will have the Master role

B. Original VRRP Master will take back control of the Master role

C. Original VRRP Backup will retain the Master role

D. VRRP Master role is determined by the router with the lowest MAC address

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

If a group of routers are running VRRP with a virtual router ID of 155, which MAC address will be used to respond to the ARP requests for the virtual IP?

A. 0000-5E00-0155

B. 0000-5E00-019B

C. 0001-5500-005E

D. 0001-9B00-005E

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

An administrator just finished configuring a Dell EMC N-Series switch. After rebooting the switch, the administrator notices that all the configuration settings just entered are gone.

Which command did the administrator fail to enter?

A. Copy running-config startup-config

B. Copy running-config backup-config

C. Copy startup-config backup-config

D. Copy startup-config running-config

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

When setting up VoIP, you decide that you want to use LLDP. LLDP is enabled by default and LLDP Transmit Management Information and Notification modes are enabled.

What additional steps need to be performed?

A. Enable ISDP and enable LLDP-MED confignotification

B. Disable ISDP and enable LLDP-MED confignotification

C. Enable ISDP and disable LLDP-MED confignotification

D. Disable ISDP and disable LLDP-MED confignotification

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

After setting up the VoIP configuration, a network administrator issues the following commands with the results shown:

console# show voice vlan Administrative Mode………………………Enable

console# show voice vlan it gi 1/0/2

Interface………………………………….Gi1/0/2

Voice VLAN Interface Mode……………Enabled

Voice VLAN ID………………………….10

Voice VLAN COS Overwrite……………False

Voice VLAN DSCP Value……………….46

Voice VLAN Port Status…………………Enabled

Voice VLAN Authentication…………….Disabled

Based on this information, what is the Layer 3 QoS value?

A. 5

B. 10

C. 46

D. Gi1/0/2

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Refer to the Exhibit.

If Client B sends a packet to Client A, what is the highest level of the network hierarchy that the packet will transverse?

A. Distribution

B. Network

C. Access

D. Core

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

When configuring a Dell EMC N-Series switch for voice traffic, which settings are needed?

A. Enable voice VLAN Set each-interface to LLDP share all VoIP related parameters Set switchport mode to general

B. Create a VLAN for voice Set each interface to ISDP share all VoIP related parameters Set switchport mode to general

C. Enable voice VLAN Set each interface to LLDP share all VoIP related parameters Set switchport mode to hybrid

D. Enable voice VLAN Set each interface to ISDP share all VoIP related parameters Set switchport mode to general

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Switch-1(config)# interface tengigabitethernet 1/0/1 Switch-1(config)# switchport mode access Switch-1(config)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 10, 20 Switch-1(config)# Switch-1(config)# interface tengigabitethernet 1/0/3 Switch-1(config)# switchport mode access Switch-1(config)# switchport access vlan 10

Switch-2(config)# interface tengigabitethernet 1/0/2 Switch-2(config)# switchport mode trunk Switch-2(config)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 10, 20 Switch-2(config)# Switch-2(config)# interface tengigabitethernet 1/0/6 Switch-2(config)# switchport mode access Switch-2(config)# switchport access vlan 20

A network administrator is troubleshooting why Host 1 cannot communicate with Host 2.

Based on the switch output shown in the exhibit, what is the reason for the communication issue?

A. Port Te1/0/1 on Switch-1 is configured incorrectly

B. Port Te1/0/2 on Switch-2 is configured incorrectly

C. Port Te1/0/3 for Host 1 is configured incorrectly on Switch-1

D. Port Te1/0/6 for Host 2 is configured incorrectly on Switch-2

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

What are key features of the Dell EMC N4064 or N4064F switches?

A. Up to 640 Gbps switch fabric capacity and hot swap expansion module support for dual QSFP (8 x 10GbE)

B. Up to 1.0 Tbps switch fabric capacity and up to 48-line rate 10GbE ports per switch

C. Up to 1.2 Tbps switch fabric capacity and up to 64-line rate 10GbE ports per switch

D. Up to 48-line rate 10GbE ports per switch and hot swap expansion module support for dual QSFP (8 x 10GbE)

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://i.dell.com/sites/csdocuments/Shared-Content_data-Sheets_Documents/en/aa/Dell_Networking_N4000_Series_SpecSheet.pdf


Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has created an ACL to block broadcast traffic to their server on port Gi1/0/1. Why is the ACL not functioning as desired?

A. ACL is not applied in the correct direction

B. ACLs do not support broadcast traffic

C. Destination address mask is incorrect

D. Destination IP address is incorrect

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

A user\’s workstation is connected to an IP phone that is connected to a Dell EMC N-Series switch. Which type of traffic is typically tagged or untagged?

A. Data = tagged, Voice = untagged

B. Data = untagged, Voice = untagged

C. Data = tagged, Voice = tagged

D. Data = untagged, Voice = tagged

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.dell.com/support/article/en-us/how12385/how-to-enable-the-voice-vlan-feature-on-dell-emc-networking-n-series-switches?lang=en


Question 12:

What happens when a match is found for an ACL with 15 entries?

A. All packets which match that entry are forwarded

B. Action from that entry is performed and the rest of the entries in the ACL are processed

C. All packets which match that entry are dropped

D. Action from that entry is performed and the ACL is exited

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Which interface on a Dell EMC N-Series switch provides the most security for management?

A. VLAN

B. Ethernet

C. Loopback

D. Out-of-band

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

When configuring a Dell EMC N-Series switch for VoIP and QoS, what is one QoS setting that ensures voice traffic is prioritized in the presence of other network traffic?

A. LLDP protocol setting

B. ISDP protocol setting

C. Classification setting

D. VLAN spanning tree setting

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

A customer is upgrading their campus network Access layer switches. They require 2-10GbE uplinks, 48-1GbE ports with PoE, and stacking capability of up to 12 units. Which Dell EMC N-Series model will meet the customer\’s requirements?

A. N1100 Series

B. N1500 Series

C. N2000 Series

D. N4000 Series

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.dellemc.com/resources/en-us/asset/data-sheets/products/networking/dell_emc_powerswitch_n2000_series_specsheet.pdf


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[PDF and VCE] Free CIS-HR PDF Real Exam Questions and Answers Free Download

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Question 1:

An HR Admin without the System Admin role can do what? (Choose three.)

A. Grant roles to users or groups

B. Modify the HR Administration > Properties

C. Reset user passwords

D. Create HR Criteria

E. Configure business rules

F. Add users to groups

Correct Answer: ACF


Question 2:

After the HR Admin [sn_hr_core.admin] role has been removed from the Admin role, how may a user with only the Admin role add members to HR groups?

A. The Admin must elevate their role to security_admin to add members to HR groups.

B. The Admin follows the same process as with any group membership change.

C. The Admin can no longer add members to HR groups.

D. The Admin must impersonate an HR Admin to add members to HR groups.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/newyork-hr-service-delivery/page/product/human-resources/task/t_HRRemoveAdminRole.html


Question 3:

In the Create Bulk Cases module, which Filter by options are available in the dropdown? (Choose four.)

A. Document Template

B. Upload File

C. HR Service Template

D. User Criteria

E. HR Template

F. HR Profiles

G. HR Criteria

Correct Answer: BDFG

Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/newyork-hr-service-delivery/page/product/human-resources/task/t_CreateBulkCases.html


Question 4:

If you have both Admin and HR Admin roles and wanted to configure an Access Control for the Employee Relations Cases table, what must first be done?

A. Add the Delegated Developer role to your User record

B. From the User dropdown in the banner, elevate your role to security_admin

C. Manually add the security_admin role to your User record

D. Nothing would need to be done

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/newyork-hr-service-delivery/page/product/human-resources/concept/c_ManageRoles.html


Question 5:

What type of information does the HR Profile contain?

A. Personal employee data

B. Group membership and role information

C. User login and department information

D. A user\’s password

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/newyork-hr-service-delivery/page/product/human-resources/concept/c_HRProfileRecords.html


Question 6:

How many User Criteria Records may be applied to a single KB or KB Article?

A. Only two

B. Only three

C. Unlimited

D. Only one

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://hi.service-now.com/kb_view.do?sysparm_article=KB0550924


Question 7:

In the base ServiceNow instance, how are User Criteria used?

A. To control which users can access the HR Case application

B. To control what a user sees in the information and suggested reading widgets

C. To control read and write access to Knowledge bases and articles

D. To control which users can access the HR Service Portal

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/newyork-servicenow-platform/page/product/knowledge-management/task/t_SelectUserCriteria.html


Question 8:

Which of the following are true for an HR application as it relates to the User [sys_user] Table and the HR Profile [sn_hr_core.profile] Table?

A. Both are required.

B. Only HR Profile table is required in HR.

C. Neither are required.

D. Only the User table is required in HR.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/madrid-hr-service-delivery/page/product/human-resources/concept/c_CustomizedProfileInformation.html


Question 9:

In the base instance, what determines the conditions a Case must meet before it can be assigned to an agent?

A. Matching Rules

B. Client Rules

C. ACLs

D. Escalation Rules

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/newyork-customer-service-management/page/product/customer-service-management/task/t_CreateAnAssignmentRule.html


Question 10:

What role is required, at a minimum, to view confidential HR Profile data?

A. HR Admin [sn_hr_core.admin]

B. HR Basic [sn_hr_core.basic]

C. LE Admin [sn_hr_le.admin]

D. HR Manager [sn_hr_core.manager]

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/orlando-hr-service-delivery/page/product/human-resources/concept/c_HRProfileSecurity.html


Question 11:

What types of HR Document templates may be created in ServiceNow? (Choose two.)

A. Document Templates

B. Word document templates

C. PDF document templates

D. Text document templates

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/london-hr-service-delivery/page/product/human-resources/concept/c_HRDocumentTemplates.html#DocumentTypes


Question 12:

What are the advantages of removing the HR Admin role from the system Admin role after the HR Implementation tasks have been completed? (Choose two.)

A. This ensures that HR has control over further HR configurations.

B. The HR Admin role should remain a part of the system Admin role.

C. This ensures that confidential HR data is only accessible to users with an HR role.

D. It is not necessary because the system Admin always has access to all HR data.

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/newyork-hr-service-delivery/page/product/human-resources/task/t_HRRemoveAdminRole.html


Question 13:

What defines an employee\’s access to the HR Service Portal / Employee Service Center?

A. Group membership

B. User Criteria

C. HR Criteria

D. Client Roles

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/newyork-hr-service-delivery/page/product/human-resources/concept/c_ClientRoles.html


Question 14:

What kind of records do HR Requests create?

A. HR Incidents

B. HR Files

C. HR Problems

D. HR Cases

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/newyork-hr-service-delivery/page/product/human-resources/task/configure-hr-record-producer.html


Question 15:

In the HR Guided Setup Module, why are some tasks locked in the Task view?

A. They require an elevated role to access.

B. They are deprecated tasks that should not be completed.

C. They require other tasks to be completed first.

D. They require a plugin to be activated first.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.servicenow.com/bundle/kingston-hr-service-delivery/page/product/human-resources/reference/r_HRTaskViewPage.html


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Question 1:

You notice an inconsistency between the routing table and the OSPF database, as shown in the exhibit. What are two reasons for this behavior? (Choose two.)

A. The LSA is a Type 4 LSA.

B. An OSPF export policy is being applied to the route.

C. An OSPF import policy is being applied to the route.

D. The LSA is a Type 5 LSA.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 2:

Referring to the exhibit, hosts in Site 1 and Site 2 are unable to communicate with each other through the Layer 3 VPN.

What is the problem?

A. The two sites are in the same AS.

B. The two sites are using the same instance type.

C. The two sites are using the same route target.

D. The two sites are using the same route distinguisher.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Referring to the ABR configuration shown in the exhibit, which three statements are correct? (Choose three.)

A. The ABR advertises a default route to the NSSA using a Type 7 LSA.

B. The ABR advertises a single Type 3 summary LSA to the backbone area for all Type 1 and Type 2 LSAs in the 192.168.16.0/20 range.

C. The ABR advertises a Type 5 external LSA to the backbone area for each Type 7 LSA in the NSSA.

D. The ABR does not summarize any routes within the 192.168.16.0/20 range.

E. The ABR advertises a single Type 5 external LSA to the backbone area for all Type 7 LSAs in the NSSA.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 4:

Referring to the exhibit, which two statements about route reflectors are correct? (Choose two.)

A. RR1 advertises routes learned from Client1 to RR2 with itself as the next hop.

B. RR2 advertises routes learned from Client3 to EBGP2 with itself as the next hop.

C. RR1 and RR2 need the same cluster ID to exchange routes learned from their clients.

D. RR2 adds its cluster ID when advertising routes from Client4 to Client3.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 5:

What information is stored in a VRF table for a BGP Layer 2 VPN? (Choose three.)

A. Layer 2 encapsulation

B. local site ID

C. remote interface of local CE device

D. logical interlace provisioned to local CE device

E. label-switched path

Correct Answer: ADE


Question 6:

Which two statements about wide and narrow metrics used in IS-IS are correct? (Choose two.)

A. Wide metrics are enabled with the wide-metrics-only parameter under protocols isis hierarchy.

B. Narrow metrics are enabled by default and use 8 bits in TLVs to send information.

C. Wide metrics are sent by default and use 24 bits in TLVs to send information.

D. Disabling narrow metrics results in external routes being leaked from L1 to L2 areas automatically.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 7:

R4 is directly connected to both RPs (R2 and R3). R4 is currently sending all joins upstream to R3 but you want to load balance the joins between both RPs.

Referring to the exhibit, which configuration change will solve this issue?

A. Configure the join-load-balance parameter under PIM on R4.

B. Configure the default route in inet.2 on R4 from R3 as the next hop to both R3 and R2.

C. Configure the group-range parameter to be the same on R2 and R3.

D. Configure the bootstrap priority on R2 to be the same as R3.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. R2 stops sending LSAs into the network.

B. The OSPF interface metrics on R2 are all set to 65535.

C. R1 will never forward transit traffic through R2.

D. Transit traffic from R1 to R4 will traverse R3.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 9:

Referring to the exhibit, what will the IS-IS cost be for R1 to reach R3?

A. 73

B. 20

C. 301

D. 310

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Referring to the exhibit, traffic sent from CE-A2 to PE3 does not loop back to CE-A2 through PE2.

Winch two EVPN functions accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. multicast ingress replication

B. aliasing

C. split horizon

D. designated forwarder election

Correct Answer: CD


Question 11:

Which two types of LSAs have an area scope? (Choose two.)

A. Type 2

B. Type 5

C. Type 11

D. Type 7

Correct Answer: AC


Question 12:

Your network is connected to two different ISPs and you notice that they are using your network for transit traffic.

In this scenario, which two configuration statements will solve this problem? (Choose two.)

A. set policy-options policy-statement ISP term REST then reject

B. set policy-options policy-statement ISP term ROUTES then reject

C. set policy-options as-path LOCAL-ROUTES “()”

D. set policy-options as-path LOCAL-ROUTES “(65310|65441) ”

Correct Answer: AC


Question 13:

A customer wants to reduce LSP flooding in their IS-IS network.

Which parameter should you change to accomplish this task?

A. [edit protocols isis] [email protected]# set spf-options rapid-runs 5

B. [edit protocols isis interface ] [email protected]# set csnp-interval 65535

C. [edit protocols isis interface ] [email protected]# set lsp-interval 1000

D. [edit protocols isis interface ] [email protected]# set mesh-group

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

A network designer wants to ensure that traffic from R2 destined for 2001:db9:ffff:ff00::/62 always traverses the R2-R1 link if that link is available.

Referring to the exhibit, which configuration change will satisfy this requirement?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

R2 has IS-IS adjacencies with R3 and R4. You want to ensure that R2 has both a level 1 and level 2 adjacency to both R3 and R4, but R2 only has one adjacency with R4.

Referring to the exhibit, which configuration change will solve this issue?

A. Change the IS-IS area on R4 to match R2.

B. Remove the level 1 disable configuration from R4.

C. Remove the level 1 disable configuration from R2.

D. Change the IS-IS area on R2 to match R4.

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

When a WLAN has to support nomadic devices, a network architect must primarily plan for which component in their design?

A. type of users

B. number of users per location

C. mobility requirements and usage

D. density of users

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which two challenges do802.1ig barcode scanners present to a WLAN design? (Select two.)

A. roaming between APs

B. encountering RF interference by devices

C. determining the RF channel bandwidth consumed per Barcode scanner

D. implementing adequate security measures to ensure PCI compliance

E. providing consistent performance on all available channels

Correct Answer: DE


Question 3:

A network architect is creating a new wireless solution for a customer. Wireless coverage is required throughout all four floors of two buildings on the same campus. Dynamic RF capabilities, including AirMatch, are required. Seamless

roaming is required within and between the two buildings. Each floor will have approximately 20 APs and 6 external APs are required for connectivity between the two buildings.

Given this information, which Aruba solution would be the most cost-effective while still meeting the customer\’s requirements?

A. An IAP cluster per floor

B. A standalone 7008 controller per floor

C. Two 7205 mobility controllers in a cluster

D. Two 7030 mobility controllers in a cluster

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which must you perform in IRIS to assign a device to a Design Group?

A. Right-click the device and select Set Layer Membership

B. Right-click the device and select Set Design Group

C. Drag and drop the device into the Site

D. Drag and drop the device into the Design Group

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

A network architect is designing a wireless solution for a company that is leasing one floor in a multi- floor building in a downtown area. The customer is concerned about ensuring complete Wi-Fi coverage and pin-pointing RF hazards.

What type of survey should the network architect perform?

A. Active

B. Virtual

C. Passive

D. Spectrum clearing

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

NewStellar has a main corporate campus in a business park with two adjacent buildings. Each building has three floors and each floor is 322 x 175 feet (98 x 53 meters) for 56,350 square feet (5,235 square meters) total. The ceiling for each floor is 12 feet (3.6 meters) high with a dro This floor has a central main corridor with washrooms, stairs, elevators and supply and network cabinets. There are cubicles around the perimeter of the floor. The central part main corridor\’s dimensions contain 9,350 square feet (870 square meters). Assuming that wireless coverage is not required in the central area, which square footage (square meter) value should a network architect use when determining the number of APs in a capacity design for each floor?

A. 55.750 square feet {5,175 square meters)

B. 56.350 square feet {5,235 square meters)

C. 47.000 square feet {4,365 square meters)

D. 338,100 feet {31,410 square meters)

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

A network architect is redesigning a wireless network. The architect begins by analyzing the number of spatial streams supported by APs of various vendors as well as the wireless devices currently in the network, if the company wants to ensure that new wireless design, including user wireless devices, support Multi-User MIMO (MU-MIMO). Which standard or standards must the wireless products support?

A. Only 802.11ax and 8011.ac

B. Only 802.11ax

C. Only 802.11ax,802.1lac, and 802.l1n

D. Only 802.11ax,802.11ac, 802.11n, and 802.11a

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

A network architect is given the task to design a new network solution for NewStellar Company, Inc. NewSteiiar has a main corporate campus in a business park with two adjacent buildings. The network architect has given one floor to analyze, Building 1 Floor 2, shown in the attached exhibit.

Each building has three floors and each floor is 322 x 175 feet (98 x 53 meters) for 56,350 square feet (5,235 square meters) total, which results in a total of 338,100 feet (31,410 square meters) for the entire building space. Each floor has a

central main corridor with washrooms, stairs, elevators and supply and network cabinets. There are cubicles around the perimeter of the floor. The central part main corridor\’s dimensions contain 9,350 square feet {870 square meters).

Because of security concerns, video cameras will be installed throughout the facility. There are 16 of these per floor, 8 per wiring closet. The cameras are non-WiFi capable and require POE 802.3af- capable switch ports from which to draw

power.

A wireless capacity design is required. Assuming that wireless coverage is required across the Building 1, Floor 2, including the central area, and that half the required APs will connect to each wiring closet, approximately how many POE

ports will be required per wiring closet for all devices that have POE or POE needs?

A. 30

B. 22

C. 42

D. 8

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

When planning the use of Cat7 cabling for a SmartRate connection between an ArubaOS AP and an ArubaOS switch, which sections should be considered when calculating distance?

A. A C

B. A B

C. A B C D

D. A B C

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

A company is redesigning their wireless network and will be upgrading all devices to support the latest wireless standards. The company is not near any radar installations. In order to keep wireless NIC power levels as low as possible to reduce interference issues and to take advantage of radar frequency ranges, what IEEE standard should APs support?

A. 802.11r

B. 802.11 ax

C. S02.11V

D. S02.11h

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

A network architect has created two sites in IRIS and defined network devices for each site. From which window would a network architect connect the two sites together?

A. Topology

B. Site-1

C. Catalog

D. Start Page

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

A network architect is creating a new wired design for a warehouse building. As a best practice, what length should the architect allow for the service loop in the wiring closets in this environment?

A. 3-10 feet (1-3 m)

B. 3 feet (1 m)

C. 15-30 feet (5-10 m)

D. 30-60 feet (10-20 m)

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

A company has two buildings on a campus that are approximately 700 feet (214 meters) apart with a clear line of site. No fiber exists between the buildings; however, there is a need for connecting the networks in the buildings together. The

connection between the two buildings will need to support peak rates over 1 Gbps.

Which solution should the company choose that will meet their requirements as well as being cost- effective?

A. Two outdoor AP 367s

B. Two outdoor AP 387s

C. Two outdoor AP 510s

D. Multi-mode fiber between campus switches

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

A university department has a program in video processing and editing. Students in the department use Wi-Fi to interact with the video servers. The editing and processing is done by the students accessing and using the video servers. However, the students must then stream their results, via Wi- Fi to their laptops to verify the results. A network architect has determined that no more than 20 APs will be needed for the Wi-Fi solution. Because of the large amount of bandwidth used during the streaming, the Aruba mobility controller solution will need to support 10 Gbps links.

Which solution would cost-effectively meet this customer\’s requirements?

A. 7008

B. 7205

C. 7240XM

D. 7030

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

A company needs an upgrade of its access layer switches. The solution requires that devices connected to the access layer by authenticated and their traffic processed by the firewall features of the Aruba Mobility Controllers. Which solution should the company implement?

A. PAPI mobility

B. Dynamic segmentation

C. iPsec tunneling

D. GRE tunneling

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Which of the following are ways that a user can interact with an Amazon Alexa skill using both voice and non-voice methods? (Choose three.)

A. Scrolling through a list

B. Selecting an action

C. Zooming in on an image

D. Pausing a video

E. Muting the device

F. Pairing with Bluetooth

Correct Answer: DEF


Question 2:

An Alexa Skill Builder wants a skill to inform the users of the number of times they have launched the skill. What approach should the Builder take to track this information?

A. Store and increment a launchCount session attribute.

B. Using the ASK SDK, implement a persistent attribute that is stored and retrieved from Amazon DynamoDB.

C. Perform a scan of the Amazon DynamoDB table for the number of records and count each record as a skill launch.

D. Set up a global variable in the code project that increments each time the code is invoked by Amazon Alexa.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://developer.amazon.com/en-US/docs/alexa/alexa-skills-kit-sdk-for-nodejs/manage-attributes.html


Question 3:

An Alexa Skill Builder is developing a skill that tells users facts about their neighborhoods using their postal codes. When running the skill, users receive error messages from their Amazon Alexa devices. When the Builder checks the logs, error messages are being sent when the device location API is used to get users\’ postal codes.

What are the potential causes of this issue? (Choose two.)

A. The Alexa devices are registered in the incorrect postal code.

B. The AWS Lambda function is not registered to the skill.

C. The users have opted out of giving their location information.

D. The application ID of the skill does not match the expected application ID of the AWS Lambda function.

E. The skill is not registered to access information in the developer console.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 4:

An Alexa Skill Builder wants to create a skill that asks the user two yes/no questions:

Alexa: Do you like cats?

Alexa: Do you like dogs?

When the username answers “yes”, how should the Builder code the handler to know which question the answer refers to?

A. Using session attributes, store the previous question as the context for use in the AMAZON.YesIntent handler.

B. Within the AMAZON.YesIntent handler, prompt the user to repeat the name of the animal that they like.

C. Within the AMAZON.YesIntent handler, define a slot to store and retrieve the previously asked question.

D. Access Amazon CloudWatch Logs and retrieve the previous question topic from the recent log messages.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://developer.amazon.com/en-US/docs/alexa/custom-skills/standard-built-in-intents.html


Question 5:

An Alexa Skill Builder needs to set up an Amazon Alexa skill beta test. What user identifier should be used to add beta testers?

A. AWS account number

B. Alexa user email address

C. Amazon vendor ID

D. Amazon customer ID

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://developer.amazon.com/en-US/docs/alexa/custom-skills/skills-beta-testing-for-alexa-skills.html


Question 6:

An Alexa Skill Builder is developing a custom skill to play a live audio stream. What two built-in intents are required to implement the AudioPlayer interface?

A. AMAZON.NextIntent and AMAZON.StopIntent

B. AMAZON.ResumeIntent and AMAZON.PauseIntent

C. AMAZON.CancelIntent and AMAZON.ResumeIntent

D. AMAZON.RepeatIntent and AMAZON.StopIntent

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://developer.amazon.com/en-US/docs/alexa/custom-skills/audioplayer-interface-reference.html


Question 7:

An Alexa Skill Builder is trying to enable a skill in the developer console. The skill model builds without errors, but the Builder is unable to turn on testing. What could be causing this?

A. The skill\’s slot types are invalid.

B. The skill does not have an example phrase

C. The skill does not have an invocation name

D. The skill does not have an endpoint

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://developer.amazon.com/en-US/docs/alexa/devconsole/test-your-skill.html


Question 8:

An Alexa Skill Builder has published a skill to the Alexa Skills Store, but soon after realizes that Amazon Alexa is saying an incorrect word in one of the responses. What is the recommended method for the Builder to correct this issue?

A. Correct the response in a new endpoint, and after updating the In Development version of the skill, redeploy it.

B. Access the In Development version of the skill, alter the intent that was causing the incorrect word, then resubmit the skill for certification.

C. Edit the response in a new endpoint, and after updating the In Development version of the skill, resubmit it for certification.

D. Correct the response in the existing endpoint of the Live version of the skill, then redeploy it.

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

An Alexa Skill Builder needs to change the invocation name of a new skill. What status should the skill be in to make this change?

A. In Development

B. Build

C. In Certification

D. Edit

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://developer.amazon.com/en-US/docs/alexa/custom-skills/choose-the-invocation-name-for-a-custom-skill.html


Question 10:

An Alexa Skill Builder is building an order reporting skill. Occasionally, users need to enter 30-digit serial codes. How can this be accomplished while providing a good voice user interface experience?

A. Manually extend the timeout so that users can input all the numbers.

B. Use multiple requests for smaller segments of the code and store the data in session attributes.

C. Enter single digits one request at a time.

D. Request that users send the number using the Amazon Alexa app

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Before beginning the development of a skill, an Alexa Skill Builder wants to hear how a statement will be pronounced by Amazon Alexa in another locale. How should the Builder test the pronounciation of the statement?

A. Use the Alexa Simulator tab in the developer console to interact with the skill using the selected locale.

B. Create a developer account for the specific locale, and use a device to interact with the skill.

C. Use Voice and Tone tab in the developer console to play the statement using the selected locale.

D. Use the Manual JSON tab in the developer console to create a sample JSON response

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://developer.amazon.com/en-US/docs/alexa/devconsole/test-your-skill.html


Question 12:

An Alexa Skill Builder submitted a child-directed skill for certification that lists the nearest skateboard parks. The Builder ensured that

The skill does not link to an external account The skill stored the child\’s preference by userId The skill has a valid privacy policy link in the skill Distribution page

Given this information, why will the skill fail certification?

A. The Builder did not upload a privacy policy document

B. Child-directed skills cannot use location information

C. The child\’s userId cannot be used because of Personally Identifiable Information (PII) restrictions.

D. The skill should not be child-directed as it can be used by children over 13 years old.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

The namespace value in the header of the incoming directive for an Amazon Alexa smart home skill specifies the:

A. context of the message

B. capability interface of the message

C. endpoint specified in the message

D. control message for the directive

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://developer.amazon.com/en-US/docs/alexa/device-apis/alexa-errorresponse.html


Question 14:

According to Amazon Alexa best practices, how should an Alexa Skill Builder prevent unintentional requests against a skill\’s backend when using AWS Lambda?

A. Ensure that the session ID provided by the request to Lambda is not already in use.

B. Rotate the Lambda ARN regularly to prevent others from using the service.

C. Retrieve the Application ID property from the request JSON and validate it against the Lambda environment variables.

D. Provide the Lambda trigger with the Application ID so that it validates on the ask trigger.

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

An Alexa Skill Builder adds a colleague to a skill using the beta test feature. The colleague logs in to the developer console to edit the interaction model and cannot see the skill. Why is this happening?

A. The colleague needs the ROLE_ADMINISTRATOR enablement.

B. The skill was not submitted for publishing.

C. The colleague was not made an administrator in the beta test tool.

D. The colleague has not been added to the skill\’s developer account.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://developer.amazon.com/en-US/docs/alexa/custom-skills/skills-beta-testing-for-alexa-skills.html


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Question 1:

Northern Trail Outfitters (NTO) is launching a custom, corporate-branded apparel website. They are concerned about the new initiative\’s campaign impacting deliverability on its consumer retail sends. NTO has purchased a second IP address to be used for the corporate site\’s email sending. What feature would the NTO administrator use to specify which IP address is used for retail vs.corporate?

A. Sender Profile

B. Send Classification

C. Delivery Profile

D. Send Definition

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

A marketer has been tasked with ensuring Northern Trail Outfitters\’ unsubscribe mechanisms are CANSPAM compliant and follow industry best practices. Which two criteria should the marketer incorporate into campaigns to ensure compliance and align with current best practices? Choose 2 answers

A. Ensure opt-out mechanisms are operational for at least 30 days post-send.

B. Process every individual\’s unsubscribe request within 14 business days.

C. Include an unsubscribe link in the header or footer of emails.

D. Ask the subscriber to log in to the Preference Center to confirm opt-out.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 3:

Northern Trail Outfitter\’s Quality Assurance process requires that a team of users evaluates all parameters

of an email send, including Email, Subject Line, Send Classification, and other properties, prior to manually

sending the email.

What tool in Email Studio enables a marketer to save and execute a send manually?

A. Send Flow

B. User-Initiated Email

C. Send Activity

D. Guided Send

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Northern Trail Outfitters (NTO) just hired a new associate who is brand new to email marketing to start creating and deploying the company\’s monthly campaigns. NTO wants to ensure no mistakes are made. Which two elements of the send can be reviewed with Approvals? Choose 2 answers

A. Hyperlinks

B. Subject Line

C. From Name

D. Send Count

Correct Answer: BC


Question 5:

Northern Trail Outfitters\’ (NTO) branding guidelines require heavy use of imagery on its website, apps,

emails, ads, etc.

What are two ways that NTO can optimize its email design to honor branding guidelines and ensure

subscribers are getting the best experience possible?

Choose 2 answers

A. Add background colors that match branding.

B. Style alt text for when images do not display automatically.

C. Use custom corporate font to match NTO brand.

D. Make the email completely image based.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 6:

Northern Trail Outfitters wants to use something other than an email address to identify subscribers. What functionality can be used to accommodate this?

A. Subscriber Key

B. Subscriber Attributes

C. System Preferences

D. Primary Key

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

A marketer is completing a Send Preview based on a pre-deployment checklist. What task is validated during the Send Preview?

A. Confirm that each content area specified in the dynamic content rules exists.

B. Identify phrases like “click here” or “Free!” that could be marked as spam.

C. Ensure subscriber status at the time of send is Subscribed or Bounced.

D. Ensure subscribers have not unsubscribed or are undeliverable.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

A small company, with limited resources, has started to use the Marketing Cloud. They have a single master data extension for all of their subscribers. When a subscriber opts in to receive communications, they will receive a monthly newsletter, weekly promotions, and a birthday email. What is the optimal way to manage unsubscribes by communication type?

A. Create a Boolean field for each communication type in the data extension and update the Profile Center.

B. Create suppression lists for each communication type, and associate the suppression list on the send definition.

C. Create separate data extensions for each communication type and customize the subscription page.

D. Create publication lists for each communication type, and associate the publication list on the send definition.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Each time Northern Trail Outfitters sends its monthly promotional email, the volume of support calls spike.

The executive team would like the marketing team to slowly send emails throughout the day to avoid

customers waiting on hold.

Which feature should the marketing team use to achieve this?

A. Send Flow

B. Send Email Activity

C. Send Throttling

D. Triggered Send

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Northern Trail Outfitters (NTO) has created a new onboarding series for customers who have purchased its fitness tracker. Customers were automatically opted in and received three emails from NTO within one day. The onboarding series includes personalized recommendations but lacks an easy way to opt out or update preferences. In this scenario, what best practice was achieved?

A. Opting customers in automatically

B. Personalized recommendations

C. Sending multiple emails in one day

D. Preventing customers from opting out

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Northern Trail Outfitters\’ marketing team includes the nearest store to customers in the template of its

emails. This data extension only needs to be updated when store information changes, such as when a

new store opens or a store closes.

How can this be achieved?

A. Create an automation to begin when Information changes on a store object using a workflow rule.

B. Create a scheduled automation to import the file on a recurring basis with store information.

C. Create a file drop automation to import the file when placed on the specified directory on the Enhanced FTP.

D. Create a file drop automation to initiate when the store\’s data extension is updated via import.

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

A marketing team is using the Import Activity to import a csv file into a data extension. The file location is the system default File Location: Enhanced FTP. The import has failed and the error is “File Not Found.” Which two steps should resolve the issue? Choose 2 answers

A. Use the Import Wizard to point to rename the file on the FTP.

B. Ensure the file to be imported is in the Import Folder on the Enhanced FTP.

C. Ensure the name of the file in the Import Activity matches the file name on the FTP.

D. Change the file format from “comma separated value” to “tab delimited.”

Correct Answer: BC


Question 13:

A customer has a Send Log they are using to track the email addresses that were sent to, date and time of the send, and the name of the email sent for reporting purposes. Per best practice, the customer stores 30 days of data in their Send Log and then archives the data into another data extension that holds data for one year. Which activity should be used to achieve the backup automatically?

A. Import File

B. Data Extract

C. SQL Query

D. Filter

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

An email marketing team has been tasked with building a new email that pulls in personalized content based on customers\’ preferences. The team has decided to create dynamic rules to accomplish this setup. What are the four elements that are required for the creation of a dynamic content rule?

A. Preferences, Value, Operator, Lists

B. Lists, Value, Operator, Images

C. Customers, Value, Operator, Content

D. Attribute, Value, Operator, Content

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Northern Trail Outfitters (NTO) is implementing the Marketing Cloud and is unsure whether to use lists or data extensions. Their consultant recommended they use data extensions. Which three considerations did the consultant take into account when recommending a data extension-based model over Lists? Choose 3 answers

A. NTO needs flexible data storage.

B. NTO will be using Journey Builder.

C. NTO is storing product and store data.

D. NTO has fewer than 15 data points.

E. NTO has fewer than 250,000 subscribers.

Correct Answer: ABC


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Question 1:

DRAG DROP

Match the log file name with the CyberArk Component that generates the log.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 2:

DRAG DROP

In version 10.7 the correct order of installation for components changed. Make the necessary corrections to the list below to show the new installation order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 3:

The vault does not support Role Based Access Control

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

The Remote Desktop Services role must be property licensed by Microsoft.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

One can create exceptions to the Master Policy based on_________.

A. Safes

B. Platforms

C. Policies

D. Accounts

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Which of the following statements are NOT true when enabling PSM recording for a target Windows server? Choose all that apply

A. The PSM software must be installed on the target server

B. PSM must be enabled in the Master Policy {either directly, or through exception).

C. PSMConnect must be added as a local user on the target server

D. RDP must be enabled on the target server

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

During LDAP/S integration you should specify the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) of the Domain Controller

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Which Master Policy?

A. Password Expiration Time

B. Enabling and Disabling of the Connection Through the PSM

C. Password Complexity

D. The use of “One-Time-Passwords”

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

When on-boarding accounts using Accounts Feed. Which of the following is true”?

A. You must specify an existing Safe where the account will be stored when it is on-boarded to the Vault.

B. You can specify the name of a new safe that will be created where the account will be stored when it is on-boarded to the Vault.

C. You can specify the name of a new Platform that will be created and associated with the account.

D. Any account that is on-boarded can be automatically reconciled regardless of the platform it is

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

The Vault Internal safe contains all of the configuration for the vault.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

One time passwords reduce the risk of Pass the Hash vulnerabilities in Windows

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

What are the operating system prerequisites for installing CPM? Select all that apply.

A. NET 3.51 Framework Feature

B. Web Services Role

C. Remote Desktop Services Role

D. Windows 2008 R2 or higher

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

It is possible to restrict the time of day. or day of week that a verify process can occur

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

When managing SSH keys. CPM automatically pushes the Private Key to all systems that use it

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

It is possible to restrict the time of day. or day of week that a change process can occur

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Examine this extract from /etc/httpd/conf/httpd.conf for virtual hosts:

ServerAdmin [email protected]

DocumentRoot /www/docs/site1.example.com

ServerName site1.example.com

ServerAdmin [email protected]

DocumentRoot /www/docs/site2.example.com

ServerName site2.example.com

Which three statements are true about the configuration extract?

A. To connect to the website, site1.example.com must resolve to a different IP address than site2.example.com.

B. site1.example.com and site2.example.com can share the same IP address.

C. The web server attempts a DHCP discover to assign one IP address per virtual host.

D. It is possible but not mandatory to have unique IP addresses for each virtual host.

E. The site1.example.com virtual host shares and error logs with site2.example.com.

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 2:

Which two options prevent unauthorized access to the named service from the rndc utility on Oracle Linux?

A. running rndc-confgen –a to generate a key that can be used by both the named service and the rndc utility

B. running rndc-confgen –a to generate a key that can be used only by the named service

C. running rndc -k /etc/rndc.key to generate a key to be used only by the rndc utility

D. the presence of /etc/named.conf with the line include “/etc/rndc.key”; to allow the named service to check for a matching key from the rndc utility

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: http://www.oracle.com/us/technologies/linux/suse-linux-to-oracle-linux-wp-1898710.pdf (page 49)


Question 3:

Which three statements are true about accessing Windows shares from Linux with SAMBA on Oracle Linux?

A. The findsmb utility queries a file to find SAMBA servers.

B. The username required to access the SAMBA shares on Windows may be specified in the mount command.

C. FTP may be used to access SAMBA shares on Windows.

D. The password required to access SAMBA shares on Windows may be specified in the mount command.

E. The smbtree utility queries a file to find SAMBA servers.

F. The smbclient utility uses a lowercase version of the environment variable USER or LOGNAME if the username is not provided on the command line.

G. The username and password required to access SAMBA shares on Windows may be specified in /etc/fstab.

Correct Answer: AEF

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E37670_01/E41138/html/ol_about_samba.html#idm139784792480512


Question 4:

Which two statements are true about container template scripts?

A. They must be Bourne Shell scripts.

B. Their name must start with 1xc-.

C. They must support the –arch option.

D. They must not be interactive.

E. They must install a Linux distribution.

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E52668_01/E54669/html/ol7-about-containers.html


Question 5:

Examine the virt-install command.

# virt-install \

–connect qemu:///system \

–virt-type kvm \

— name test \

— ram 500 \

–disk path =/var/lib/libvirt/images/test.img, size=4

–cdrom /home/user01/DownLoads/OracleLinux-R6-U5-Server-x86_64-dvd.iso \

–os-variant oe16

Which two statements are true?

A. The –connect option specifies the credentials for the hypervisor to use.

B. The –name option specifies the name of the new guest virtual machine instance.

C. The –ram option specifies the memory to allocate for a guest instance in MB.

D. The –virtype option specifies that only the keyboard, video, and mouse are fully virtualized.

E. The –disk option specifies the media to use as storage for the guest. The size of the storage will be 4 GB.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 6:

Examine the udevadm command:

udevadm info –query=all –name=/dev/sdb

What does this command display?

A. the device tree, and all properties maintained in sysfs for all parent devices in the device tree for the /dev/sdb disk device

B. all properties maintained in sysfs for the /dev/sdb kernel device, excluding parent devices

C. all properties maintained in devfs for the /dev/sdb kernel device, excluding parent devices

D. the device tree, and all properties maintained in devfs for the /dev/sdb device, including properties of all parent devices in the device tree for the /dev/sdb disk device

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which three statements are true about the Kickstart installation method?

A. It always requires a Kickstart file.

B. The system must be booted manually with the ks= option.

C. It automates the installation of Oracle Linux.

D. It creates a Kickstart file.

E. It requires local access to the installation media.

F. It requires a PXE boot from the network.

Correct Answer: CEF

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E37670_01/E41137/html/ch03s02.html


Question 8:

Which statement describes the default network set up by an Oracle template script?

A. The container is isolated from the network.

B. A veth device is added to libvirt\’s virbr0 bridge.

C. A macvlan device enables DHCP from the host\’s network.

D. A private interface is routed to Open vSwitch.

Correct Answer: B

By default, the lxc-oracle template script sets up networking by setting up a veth bridge. In this mode, a container obtains its IP address from the dnsmasq server that libvirtd runs on the private virtual bridge network (virbr0) between the container and the host. The host allows a container to connect to the rest of the network by using NAT rules in iptables, but these rules do not allow incoming connections to the container. Both the host and other containers on the veth bridge have network access to the container via the bridge.


Question 9:

Consider a cgroup configuration in the /etc/cgconfig.conf file:

mount {

cpuset = /cgroup/A;

cpu = /cgroup/A;

cpuacct = /cgroup/cpuacct;

}

group A1 {

perm {

admin {

uid = root;

gid = wheel;

}

task {

uid = root;

gid = users;

}

}

cpuset {

cpuset.mems=”0″;

cpuset.cpus=”0″;

}

cpu {

cpu.shares=”5″;

}

}

group A2 {

perm {

admin {

uid = root;

admin {

uid = root

gid = root;

}

task {

uid = root;

gid = users;

}

}

cpuset {

cpuset.mems=”0″;

cpuset.cpus=”1″;

}

cpu {

cpu.shares=”5″;

}

}

Which two statements are true?

A. Two cgroup hierarchies and three subsystems are defined; cgroup A1 and A2 are located in the same sgroup hierarchy.

B. Two cgroup hierarchies and three subsystems are defined; cgroup A1 and A2 are located in different cgroup hierarchiers.

C. Three cgroup hierarchies and three subsystems are defined; cgroup A1 and A2 are located in the same sgroup hierarchy.

D. Three cgroup hierarchies and three subsystems are defined; cgroup A1 and A2 are located in different cgroup hierarchiers.

E. Any user who is a member of the users group is allowed to move his or her own tasks from the root cgroup to cgroup A1 or cgroup A2.

F. Any user who is a member of the users group is allowed to execute tasks in cgroups A1 and A2 and change the cpu.shares parameter in cgroups A1 and A2.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 10:

You want to create a new LUN, LUN ID =1, on a new target, target ID = 2. Inspect the current state of targets and LUNs in the output from tgt-admin –s. The output is filtered to show only target and LUN associations. [[email protected] init.d]# tgt-admin –s | egrep –i ‘target|lun’ Target 1: iqn.2013-03.com.example.mypc:1 LUN information: LUN: 0 LUN: 1 LUN: 2 LUN: 3

You want to add a new LUN to a new target by using the /iSCSIsharedDisk/physDisk4.img disk image file.

Which two options would you use to do this?

A. tgt-setup-lun –t 2 tgt-setup-lun –d /iSCSIsharedDisk/physDisk4.img –t 2

B. tgt-setup-lun –d /iSCSIsharedDisk/physDisk4.img –n 2

C. tgt-admin –op new \ –mode target \ –tid 2\ –targetname iqn.2013-03.com.example.mypc:2 tgt-admin –op new \

D. –mode logicalunit \ –tid 2 \ –lun 1 \ –backing-store /iSCSIsharedDisk/physDisk4.img

E. tgtadm — op new \ –mode target \ –tid 2\ –targetname iqn.2013-03.com.example.mypc:2 \ –lun 1 \ –backing-store /iSCSIsharedDisk/physDisk4.img

F. tgt-admin –d /iSCSIsharedDisk/physDisk4.img –n 2

Correct Answer: AE


Question 11:

You have an unmounted btrfs file system: # btrfs filesystem show Label: ‘Btrfs’ uuid: 7bfe3239-47ee-442b-b9f8-49f88b6b1be4 Total devices 3 FS bytes used 300.51MB devid 2 size 4.88GB used 1.06GB path /dev/sdd devid 1 size 4.88GB used 580.00GB path /dev/sdc devid 3 size 4.88GB used 1.50GB path /dev/sdb You have these mounted devices: # df –h

You have a mount point for the btrfs file system:

# ls -all /btrfs

total 0

drwxr-xr-x. 1 root root 0 Aug 12 10:17 .

dr-xr-xr-x. 1 root root 276 Aug 12 10:36 ..

Examine these steps:

1.

Manual defragment is not needed. Btrfs will defragment it automatically.

2.

btrfs device defragment /dev/sdd

3.

btrfs filesystem defragment /btrfs

4.

btrfs device delete /dev/sdb /btrfs

5.

mount UUID=7bfe3239-47ee-442b-b9f8-49f88b6b1be4 /btrfs

6.

btrfs device delete /dev/sdb /dev/sdd

What is the correct order to delete the /dev/sdb device from the btrfs file system and for defragmenting the reduced file system?

A. 6, 1

B. 5, 4, 3

C. 5, 6, 4, 3

D. 5, 6, 1

E. 4, 2

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

What statement is true about udev?

A. It uses predefined kernel devices in /dev for all combinations of that may be connected to a system to support dynamic device name assignment.

B. It dynamically creates kernel devices for only those devices that are connected.

C. It produces persistent device names for all devices.

D. Its configuration is based on device properties and attributes maintained in devfs.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://www.linuxfromscratch.org/lfs/view/development/chapter07/udev.html


Question 13:

Examine the contents of the /etc/ocfs2/cluster.conf file: node: name = exam2 cluster = mycluster number = 0 ip_address = 192.168.56.106 ip_port = 7777

node: name = exam3 cluster = mycluster number = 1 ip_address = 192.168.56.107 ip_port = 7777 clustr: name = mycluster heartbeat_mode = local node_count = 2

Identify the minimum number of commands issued, in the correct order, to create this file.

1.

o2cb add-cluster –heartbeat_mode local mycluster

2.

o2cb add-node –ip 192.168.56.107 –number 1 mycluster exam3

3.

o2cb add-cluster mycluster

4.

o2cb add-node –ip 192.168.56.106 — number 0 mycluster exam2

5.

o0cb config-cluster -node_count 2 mycluster

6.

o2cb configure

A. 3, 4, 2

B. 6, 4, 2, 3

C. 6, 4, 2, 5, 3

D. 6, 1, 4, 2

E. 1, 4, 2

F. 1, 4, 2, 5

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which statement is true about btrfs file system devices?

A. You must execute the btrfs device scan after every reboot to add a device to a btrfs file system.

B. The btrfs device scan -all-devices command scans physical devices looking for members of a btrfs volume.

C. Blocks are automatically rebalanced across all existing devices after adding new devices.

D. A device may be added to btrfs only if the file system is unmounted.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Examine the output of the lscgroup command:

cpuset, cpu, memory:/ cpuset, cpu, memory:/A2 cpuset, cpu, memory:/A2/A3 cpuset, cpu, memory:/B1 cpuset, cpu, memory:/A1 blkio:/ blkio:/B1 cpuacct:/

Which statement changes the shares parameter of the cpu subsystem for the group A3 to a value of 2?

A. cgset -r cpu.shares=2 A3

B. cgset -r cpu.shares=2 A3/A3

C. cgset -r shares=2 cpu:/A2/A3

D. cgset -r cpu.shares=2 cpuset, cpu, memory:/A2/A3

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the device operating system on the left into the box associated with its third party messaging solution.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 2:

As a Workspace ONE administrator, you have been tasked with creating a custom visualization for management that shows device statistics, trust network threats, and application adoption metrics in a single view.

Which feature of Workspace ONE can be used?

A. Workspace ONE Intelligence Dashboards

B. Workspace ONE Access Application View

C. Workspace ONE Intelligence Automations

D. Workspace ONE UEM Device List View

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://techzone.vmware.com/resource/workspace-one-intelligence-architecture#workspace-one-uem


Question 3:

Which Workspace ONE UEM feature can assist in sending event log information to a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) tool?

A. Syslog Integration

B. Relay Server Integration

C. Certificate Authority Integration

D. File Storage Integration

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which two steps would an administrator complete to enable auto-discovery for their Workspace ONE UEM environment? (Choose two.)

A. Enter the email domain when installing the AirWatch Cloud Connector.

B. Verify the domain by accepting the link in the email that registered auto-discovery.

C. Register email domain within Workspace ONE UEM.

D. Enter the email domain when establishing directory services.

E. Email [email protected] with the domain the administrator wants to register.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 5:

What two features of Hub Services can be enabled without enabling Workspace ONE Access and having the authentication mode set to Workspace ONE UEM? (Choose two.)

A. enable SSO for applications

B. enable People Search

C. notifications for iOS and Android

D. Hub Virtual Assistant Chatbot

E. Hub Catalog layout

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Workspace-ONE/services/intelligent-hub_IDM/GUID-012E7722-FC83-4EF5-8ADD-2457E29720FE.html


Question 6:

Which two Workspace ONE UEM core components are required for all on-premises environments? (Choose two.)

A. Device Services

B. AirWatch Cloud Connector

C. Unified Access Gateway

D. Secure Email Gateway

E. Console Services

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://techzone.vmware.com/resource/workspace-one-uem-architecture#scalability


Question 7:

An administrator would like to track these details for all Windows desktops managed by Workspace ONE UEM:

driver details for a mouse driver warranty information for OS registry value of internal apps

Which Workspace ONE UEM utility can the administrator use?

A. Create LGPO and assign to Windows devices.

B. Create sensors and assign to Windows devices.

C. Create an OEM update profile and assign to Windows devices.

D. Create Application Control profile and assign to Windows devices.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Workspace-ONE-UEM/services/Windows_Desktop_Device_Management/GUID-uemWindeskSensors.html


Question 8:

When using Workspace ONE 20.x and higher, which three ways can an administrator using UEM automatically move devices into specified organization groups? (Choose three.)

A. user group mappings

B. device type mappings

C. location based mappings

D. IP-based mappings

E. device ownership mappings

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 9:

What product from Workspace ONE needs to be enabled to provide administrators a flexible method for alerting and informing end-users?

A. AirWatch Cloud Connector

B. Workspace ONE Intelligence

C. Workspace ONE Hub Services

D. VMware Tunnel

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://techzone.vmware.com/automating-notifications-workspace-one-operational-tutorial#_1267872


Question 10:

What component of the Hub Services can be integrated with Physical Access Control Systems to allow the Workspace ONE Intelligent app on mobile devices to act as digital badge?

A. Hub Employee Self-service

B. Hub Passport

C. Hub Catalog

D. Hub Access

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which administrative console is used to change to an organization logo (branding) in the Intelligent Hub Catalog?

A. Workspace ONE Access

B. Workspace ONE Hub Services

C. Workspace ONE

D. Workspace ONE UEM

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Workspace-ONE/services/intelligent-hub_IDM/GUID-DD632B89-7457-4764-B14F-48AAFAAC8113.html


Question 12:

Which is true about Workspace ONE compatibility when deploying content across different device types?

A. Content cannot be distributed to iOS devices.

B. Content cannot be distributed by Workspace ONE.

C. Content can be distributed to devices types including iOS, Android, Windows, and MacOS.

D. Content can be distributed to devices types including iOS, Android, and Windows.

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Which protocol does Workspace ONE use to communicate with third party Identity Providers?

A. SAML

B. Kerberos

C. RADIUS

D. OAuth

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which three Workspace ONE Edge Services are included in Unified Access Gateway? (Choose three.)

A. AirWatch Cloud Connector

B. Content Gateway

C. Secure Email Gateway

D. Workspace ONE Intelligence Connector

E. VMware Tunnel

Correct Answer: BCE


Question 15:

Which of the following authentication methods is needed to be enabled/configured for an administrator to leverage Day Zero Onboarding?

A. Token Auth Adapter

B. Workspace ONE UEM External Access Token

C. FIDO2

D. Certificate-based authentication

E. Verify (Intelligent Hub)

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Workspace-ONE/services/VMware_Workspace_ONEHub_onboarding_pre-hires/GUID-1DB5A54E-2F72-4629-97C8-F456BBDB7F5E.html


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