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[PDF and VCE] Free 300-100 VCE and PDF, Exam Materials Instant Download

[PDF and VCE] Free 300-100 VCE and PDF, Exam Materials Instant Download

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Question 1:

Which option must be specified in smb.conf in order to make Samba create machine accounts automatically when a client joins the domain?

A. kerberos

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Which of the following Samba variables must be used to pass the machine name to the script specified in add machine script within a Samba configuration file?

A. %m

B. %w

C. %p

D. %q

E. %u

Correct Answer: E


Question 3:

What command checks the Samba configuration file for syntactical correctness? (Specify ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)

A. TESTPARM

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which of the following ports are open by default on a Samba 4 Active Directory Domain Controller? (Choose three.)

A. 443/TCP

B. 138/TCP

C. 389/TCP

D. 445/TCP

E. 53/TCP

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 5:

It is found that changes made to an OpenLDAP directory are no longer being replicated to the slave server at 192.168.0.3. Tests prove that the slave server is listening on the correct port and changes are being recorded properly to the replication log file.

In which file would you find the replication errors?

A. replication.err

B. replication.rej

C. 192.168.0.3: 389.rej

D. 192.168.0.3: 389.err

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Below is an ACL entry from a slapd.conf file. Fill in the access control level setting to prevent users from retrieving passwords. access to attrs=lmPassword,ntPassword by dn=”cn=smbadmin,dc=samplenet” write by * _______

A. none

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Which of the following procedures will test the TLS configuration of an OpenLDAP server?

A. Run the ldapsearch command with the -ZZ option, while watching network traffic with a packet analyzer.

B. Run the ldapsearch command with the -x option, while watching network traffic with a packet analyzer.

C. Run the slapcat command, while watching network traffic with a packet analyzer.

D. Verify the TLS negotiation process in the /var/log/ldap_auth.log file.

E. Verify the TLS negotiation process in the /var/log/auth.log file.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

In slapd.conf, what keyword will instruct slapd to not ask the client for a certificatE. TLSVerifyClient = ________

A. never

B. nocert

C. none

D. unverified

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

After modifying the indexes for a database in slapd.conf and running slapindex, the slapd daemon refuses to start when its init script is called. What is the most likely cause of this?

A. The indexes are not compatible with the init script.

B. The init script cannot be run after executing slapindex, without first signing the indexes with slapsign.

C. The init script has identified one or more invalid indexes.

D. The init script is starting slapd as an ordinary user, and the index files are owned by root.

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Which of the following parameters can be used in the file DB_CONFIG? (Select TWO correct answers.)

A. set_cachesize

B. set_cachepath

C. set_db_type

D. set_db_path

E. set_lg_max

Correct Answer: AE


Question 11:

When configuring an OpenLDAP system for integration with PAM and NSS the /etc/nsswitch.conf file needs to be modified. Which of the following parameters completes this line from the /etc/nsswitch.conf file? passwD. files _________

A. pam

B. ldap

C. pam_nss

D. pam_ldap

E. none

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

By configuring Pluggable Authentication Module (PAM) and Name Service Switch (NSS) technologies to use OpenLDAP, what authentication service can be replaced?

A. Microsoft NT Domain

B. Samba

C. Network Information Service (NIS)

D. Active Directory (AD)

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

When configuring an OpenLDAP server to act as a proxy to a Microsoft Active Directory server, what is the correct database type for this stanza of the slapd.conf file? database _________

suffix “cn=users,dc=testcorp,dc=com”

subordinate

rebind-as-user

uri “ldap: //dc1.testcorp.com/”

chase-referrals yes

A. ldap

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which port in TCP/IP communication is used for Kerberos v5?

A. 888

B. 86

C. 88

D. 90

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Which of the following are true for CIFS? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A. Filenames can be in any character set.

B. Filenames can have a maximum length of 127 characters.

C. Unlike SMB, CIFS is not optimized for slow network connections.

D. Opportunistic Locks are supported.

Correct Answer: AD


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[PDF and VCE] Free Share H31-311 PDF Exam Preparation Materials with Real Exam Questions

[PDF and VCE] Free Share H31-311 PDF Exam Preparation Materials with Real Exam Questions

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Question 1:

The coherent receiver technology uses the local oscillator laser that has the same frequency as received signals to perform coherent processing and recovers the ( ) information from the received signals. (Multiple Choice)

A. Phase

B. Frequency

C. Polarization state

D. Amplitude

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 2:

Which of the following is not a condition for triggering multiplex section protection (MSP)?

A. The MS-AIS signal is detected.

B. AU-AIS is detected.

C. R-LOS is detected.

D. R-LOF is detected.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which of the following methods can be used to multiplex lower-order ODUk to higher-order ODUk?

A. Time division multiplexing

B. Wavelength division multiplexing

C. Space division multiplexing

D. Frequency division multiplexing

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

When bit errors are detected in the B2 byte, which of the following alarms is reported by the peer end?

A. MS-AIS

B. RS-BBE

C. MS-FEBBE

D. MS-BBE

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Only one TCM can be used at a site.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

The error correction capability of FEC is measured with the encoding gain. Which of the following statements about the encoding gain is incorrect?

A. When the BER is constant, the OSNR saved by the correction encoding is called encoding gain.

B. The error correction capability of FEC increases with the encoding gain.

C. The encoding gain of the inband FEC is larger than that of the outband FEC.

D. The encoding gain of AFEC is larger than that of FEC.

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

WDM multiplexes the optical signals at multiple rates (wavelengths) over one fiber for transmission. The digital signals carried by these optical signals must have the same rate and data format.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Which of the following is the frame structure of STM-16?

A. 9*270*1

B. 9*270*4

C. 9*270*16

D. 9*270*64

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

A MAC address consists of 48 bits and is globally unique. Which of the following is the meaning of the MAC address whose eighth bit is 1?

A. Unicast address

B. Bicast address

C. Multicast address

D. Broadcast address

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

SES: There are 5% or more than 5% bit error blocks or at least one defect (OCI/AIS/LCKAAE/LTCA1M/PLM) within one second.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

For 100G (112 Gbit/s) signals, the actual data baud rate is only 28G baud.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which of the following effects is used by the Raman amplifier?

A. Self-phase modulation (SPM)

B. Dispersion

C. Raman scattering

D. Four-wave mixing (FWM)

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Which of the following statements about the MST functional module are correct? (Multiple Choice)

A. The MST is both the source and sink of the MS.

B. The MST implements the BIP-8 statistics calculation of the B2 byte.

C. The MST returns bit error information, but not the specific number of bit errors.

D. The MST provides the E2 orderwire channel.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 14:

According to ITU-T recommendations, the requirement that the MSP switching time should be within 50 ms is conditional. For example, the number of NEs on an entire ring network is less than 16.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

OChr means that the electrical supervisory technology is used.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


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Free Download the Most Update HPE6-A75 Brain Dumps

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Question 1:

Which technologies can prevent split brain in a VSF fabric that includes Aruba 2930F switches?

A. ARP MAD or OOBM MAD

B. VLAN MAD or ARP MAD

C. OOBM MAD or LLDP MAD

D. LLDP MAD or VLAN MAD

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the configuration of the Enforcement Profiles In the Onboard Authorization service shown, which Onboarding action will occur?

A. The device will be disconnected from the network after Onboarding so that an EAP-TLS authentication is not performed.

B. The device will be disconnected from and reconnected to the network after Onboarding is completed.

C. The device\’s onboard authorization request will be denied.

D. The device will be disconnected after post-Onboarding EAP-TLS authentication, so a second EAP-TLS authentication is performed.

E. After logging in on the Onboard web login page, the device will be disconnected form and reconnected to the network before Onboard begins.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the Attribute configuration shown, which statement accurately describes the status of attribute values?

A. Only the attribute values of department and memberOf can be used in role mapping policies.

B. The attribute values of department, title, memberOf, telephoneNumber, and mail are directly applied as ClearPass.

C. Only the attribute value of company can be used in role mapping policies, not the other attributes.

D. The attribute values of department and memberOf are directly applied as ClearPass roles.

E. Only the attribute values of title, telephoneNumber, and mail can be used in role mapping policies.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

An administrator wants to use Airwave to manually add devices on the network. Where should the administrator perform this action?

A. in Device Setup

B. in Groups

C. in AMP Setup

D. in Devices

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

Switch-1 and Switch-2 connect on interface A23. The switches experience a connectivity issue. The network administrator sees that both switches show this interface as up. The administrator sees the output shown in the exhibit on Switch-1. What is a typical issue that could cause this output?

A. a hardware issue, such as a broken cable

B. asymmetric routing introduced by a routing configuration error

C. an issue with queuing, caused by mismatched QoS settings

D. mismatched IP addresses on the VLAN for the link

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

An administrator supports a RAP to a branch office. Employees at the branch office connect to an employee SSID that allows for split tunneling of the employee traffic. The RAP initially connects to the corporate office controller, but later loses connectivity to it.

Which operating mode should the administrator configure for a secondary SSID to be advertised during the loss of connectivity?

A. Standard

B. Persistent

C. Always

D. Backup

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the configuration for the client\’s certificate private key as shown, which statements accurately describe the settings? (Select two.)

A. More bits in the private key will increase security.

B. The private key for TLS client certificates is not created.

C. The private key is stored in the ClearPass server.

D. More bits in the private key will reduce security.

E. The private key is stored in the user device.

Correct Answer: AE


Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the Policy configuration shown, which VLAN will be assigned when a user with ClearPass role Engineer authenticates to the network successfully on Saturday using connection protocol WEBAUTH?

A. Deny Access

B. Employee VLAN

C. Internet VLAN

D. Full Access VLAN

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

An administrator creates service-based policies for AirGroup on the Mobility Master (MM). The administrator can define location-based policy limits based on which information?

A. AP names, AP groups, controller names, and controller groups

B. AP Fully Qualified Location Names (FQLNs) and controller Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs)

C. AP names, AP groups, and AP Fully Qualified Location Names (FQLNs)

D. Controller names, controller groups, and controller Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs)

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

A network administrator can set the OSPF metric-type on an AOS-Switch to Type 1 or Type 2. What is the difference?

A. A Type 2 metric marks external routes that can be advertised in NSSAs, while a Type 1 metric marks external routes that can only be advertised in normal areas.

B. A Type 2 metric assigns cost 1 to a 100 Gbps link, while a Type 1 metric assigns cost 1 to all links of 100 Mbps or higher.

C. A Type 2 metric is assigned to multiple external routes that are aggregated together, while a Type 1 metric does not permit external route aggregation.

D. A Type 2 metric stays the same as the external route is advertised, while a Type 1 metric increments with internal OSPF link costs.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Which protocol do Mobility Controllers (MCs) use to detect a failed Mobility Master (MM)?

A. VRRP

B. SNMP

C. PAPI

D. IPSec

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

A company requires AOS-Switches at the campus core. The switches:

Will act as the default gateways for several campus VLANs Must provide redundancy for their services and tolerate the loss of a link or an entire switch Must recover from the failure of one of the switches within a second or less VRRP and MSTP are proposed to meet these requirements. What is an issue with this proposal?

A. VRRP provides redundancy against lost links but not a failed switch.

B. VRRP provides routing redundancy but not default gateway redundancy.

C. VRRP does not interoperate with MSTP.

D. VRRP takes longer than a second to fail over.

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator implements AP licensing on a Mobility Master (MM).

Each campus is responsible to purchase its own AP licenses.

There are 900 AP licenses deployed in the global pool

There are three dedicated pools.

From the global pool, 300 AP licenses are assigned to each dedicated pool.

Network engineers at CampusA want to deploy an additional 100 APs. Currently all of the AP licenses in CampusA and CampusB are allocated, but only 200 of the AP licenses m CampusC are allocated.

What can the administrator do to add capacity for CampusA in alignment with campus policies?

A. Allow CampusA to share from the CampusC pool.

B. Add 100 more AP licenses and assign them to the CampusA pool.

C. Move 100 licenses from the CampusC pool to the global pool.

D. Add 100 more AP licenses to the global pool.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

What must an OSPF router do when it receives a link state update?

A. It must participate in a new election for the Designated Router and Backup DR.

B. It must initiate a graceful restart timer.

C. It must re-establish adjacency with its Designated Router and Backup DR.

D. It must run the shortest path first algorithm.

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit.

A company has attempted to implement OSPF without success. The devices in Area I need to be able to reach Area 2. Routes should be aggregated for advertisement in other areas. What must be changed to meet these requirements?

A. Change Area 3 to Area 0; remove Area 1 from Switch-2 and Area 2 from Switch-1.

B. Add the 10.2.0.0/16 range on Swttch-1 and the 10.1.0.0/16 range on Switch-2.

C. Add Area 1 and Area 2 on VIAN 100 on both Switch-1 and Switch-2. Remove Area 3.

D. Move the 10.1.0.0/16 range to Area 2 on Switch-1 and the 10.2.0.0/16rangetoArea 1 onSwitch-2.

Correct Answer: A


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[PDF and VCE] Free NSE7_EFW-6.2 VCE and PDF, Exam Materials Instant Download

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Question 1:

Examine the IPsec configuration shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below. Questions and Answers PDF P-3

An administrator wants to monitor the VPN by enabling the IKE real time debug using these commands: diagnose vpn ike log-filter src-addr4 10.0.10.1 diagnose debug application ike -1 diagnose debug enable The VPN is currently up, there is no traffic crossing the tunnel and DPD packets are being interchanged between both IPsec gateways. However, the IKE real time debug does NOT show any output.

Why isn\’t there any output?

A. The IKE real time shows the phases 1 and 2 negotiations only. It does not show any more output once the tunnel is up.

B. The log-filter setting is set incorrectly. The VPN\’s traffic does not match this filter.

C. The IKE real time debug shows the phase 1 negotiation only. For information after that, the administrator must use the IPsec real time debug instead: diagnose debug application ipsec -1.

D. The IKE real time debug shows error messages only. If it does not provide any output, it indicates that the tunnel is operating normally.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which of the following statements are true regarding the SIP session helper and the SIP application layer gateway (ALG)? (Choose three.)

A. SIP session helper runs in the kernel; SIP ALG runs as a user space process.

B. SIP ALG supports SIP HA failover; SIP helper does not.

C. SIP ALG supports SIP over IPv6; SIP helper does not.

D. SIP ALG can create expected sessions for media traffic; SIP helper does not.

E. SIP helper supports SIP over TCP and UDP; SIP ALG supports only SIP over UDP.

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 3:

A corporate network allows Internet Access to FSSO users only. The FSSO user student does not have Internet access after successfully logged into the Windows AD network. The output of the `diagnose debug authd fsso list\’ command does not show student as an active FSSO user. Other FSSO users can access the Internet without problems. What should the administrator check? (Choose two.)

A. The user student must not be listed in the CA\’s ignore user list.

B. The user student must belong to one or more of the monitored user groups.

C. The student workstation\’s IP subnet must be listed in the CA\’s trusted list.

D. At least one of the student\’s user groups must be allowed by a FortiGate firewall policy.

Correct Answer: AD

https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=FD38828


Question 4:

An administrator has decreased all the TCP session timers to optimize the FortiGate memory usage. However, after the changes, one network application started to have problems. During the troubleshooting, the administrator noticed that the FortiGate deletes the sessions after the clients send the SYN packets, and before the arrival of the SYN/ACKs. When the SYN/ACK packets arrive to the FortiGate, the unit has already deleted the respective sessions. Which TCP session timer must be increased to fix this problem?

A. TCP half open.

B. TCP half close.

C. TCP time wait.

D. TCP session time to live.

Correct Answer: A

http://docslegacy.fortinet.com/fos40hlp/43prev/wwhelp/wwhimpl/common/html/wwhelp.htm?context=fgtandfil e=CLI_get_Commands.58.25.html The tcp-halfopen-timer controls for how long, after a SYN packet, a session without SYN/ACK remains in the table. The tcp-halfclose-timer controls for how long, after a FIN packet, a session without FIN/ACK remains in the table. The tcp-timewait-timer controls for how long, after a FIN/ACK packet, a session remains in the table. A closed session remains in the session table for a few seconds more to allow any out-of- sequence packet.


Question 5:

An administrator is running the following sniffer in a FortiGate: diagnose sniffer packet any “host 10.0.2.10” 2

What information is included in the output of the sniffer? (Choose two.)

A. Ethernet headers.

B. IP payload.

C. IP headers.

D. Port names.

Correct Answer: BC

https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=11186


Question 6:

Examine the following partial output from a sniffer command; then answer the question below.

What is the meaning of the packets dropped counter at the end of the sniffer?

A. Number of packets that didn\’t match the sniffer filter.

B. Number of total packets dropped by the FortiGate.

C. Number of packets that matched the sniffer filter and were dropped by the FortiGate.

D. Number of packets that matched the sniffer filter but could not be captured by the sniffer.

Correct Answer: D

https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=11655


Question 7:

A FortiGate is configured as an explicit web proxy. Clients using this web proxy are reposting DNS errors when accessing any website. The administrator executes the following debug commands and observes that the n-dns-timeout counter is increasing:

What should the administrator check to fix the problem?

A. The connectivity between the FortiGate unit and the DNS server.

B. The connectivity between the client workstations and the DNS server.

C. That DNS traffic from client workstations is allowed by the explicit web proxy policies.

D. That DNS service is enabled in the explicit web proxy interface.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Which real time debug should an administrator enable to troubleshoot RADIUS authentication problems?

A. Diagnose debug application radius -1.

B. Diagnose debug application fnbamd -1.

C. Diagnose authd console -log enable.

D. Diagnose radius console -log enable.

Correct Answer: B

https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=FD32838


Question 9:

Examine the output of the `diagnose sys session list expectation\’ command shown in the exhibit; than answer the question below.

Which statement is true regarding the session in the exhibit?

A. It was created by the FortiGate kernel to allow push updates from FotiGuard.

B. It is for management traffic terminating at the FortiGate.

C. It is for traffic originated from the FortiGate.

D. It was created by a session helper or ALG.

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

An administrator has configured a FortiGate device with two VDOMs: root and internal. The administrator has also created and inter-VDOM link that connects both VDOMs. The objective is to have each VDOM advertise some routes to the other VDOM via OSPF through the inter-VDOM link. What OSPF configuration settings must match in both VDOMs to have the OSPF adjacency successfully forming? (Choose three.)

A. Router ID.

B. OSPF interface area.

C. OSPF interface cost.

D. OSPF interface MTU.

E. Interface subnet mask.

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 11:

An administrator has configured a dial-up IPsec VPN with one phase 2, extended authentication (XAuth)

and IKE mode configuration. The administrator has also enabled the IKE real time debug:

diagnose debug application ike-1

diagnose debug enable

In which order is each step and phase displayed in the debug output each time a new dial-up user is

connecting to the VPN?

A. Phase1; IKE mode configuration; XAuth; phase 2.

B. Phase1; XAuth; IKE mode configuration; phase2.

C. Phase1; XAuth; phase 2; IKE mode configuration.

D. Phase1; IKE mode configuration; phase 2; XAuth.

Correct Answer: B

https://help.fortinet.com/fos50hlp/54/Content/FortiOS/fortigate-ipsecvpn- 54/IPsec_VPN_Concepts/ IKE_Packet_Processing.htm


Question 12:

Two independent FortiGate HA clusters are connected to the same broadcast domain. The administrator has reported that both clusters are using the same HA virtual MAC address. This creates a duplicated MAC address problem in the network.

What HA setting must be changed in one of the HA clusters to fix the problem?

A. Group ID.

B. Group name.

C. Session pickup.

D. Gratuitous ARPs.

Correct Answer: A

https://help.fortinet.com/fos50hlp/54/Content/FortiOS/fortigate-high-availability- 52/HA_failoverVMAC.htm


Question 13:

The logs in a FSSO collector agent (CA) are showing the following error: failed to connect to registry: PIKA1026 (192.168.12.232)

What can be the reason for this error?

A. The CA cannot resolve the name of the workstation.

B. The FortiGate cannot resolve the name of the workstation.

C. The remote registry service is not running in the workstation 192.168.12.232.

D. The CA cannot reach the FortiGate with the IP address 192.168.12.232.

Correct Answer: C

https://kb.fortinet.com/kb/documentLink.do?externalID=FD30548


Question 14:

Examine the output of the `get router info ospf neighbor\’ command shown in the exhibit; then answer the question below.

Which statements are true regarding the output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. The interface ToRemote is OSPF network type point-to-point.

B. The OSPF router with the ID 0.0.0.2 is the designated router for the ToRemote network.

C. The local FortiGate is the backup designated router for the wan1 network.

D. The OSPF routers with the IDs 0.0.0.69 and 0.0.0.117 are both designated routers for the wan1 network.

Correct Answer: AC

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13685-13.html


Question 15:

A FortiGate has two default routes: All Internet traffic is currently using port1. The exhibit shows partial information for one sample session of Internet traffic from an internal user:

What would happen with the traffic matching the above session if the priority on the first default route (IDd1) were changed from 5 to 20?

A. Session would remain in the session table and its traffic would keep using port1 as the outgoing interface.

B. Session would remain in the session table and its traffic would start using port2 as the outgoing interface.

C. Session would be deleted, so the client would need to start a new session.

D. Session would remain in the session table and its traffic would be shared between port1 and port2.

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

What are the two locations where a historical report can be saved? (Choose two.)

A. In a Group folder

B. In the Scheduled Events folder

C. In the Public Report Templates folder

D. In the Private Report Templates folder

Correct Answer: AD


Question 2:

In the Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS) System Control and Monitor Utility, which steps will allow an individual service to be stopped and started?

A. Enter the advanced password, right click on the service and select restart.

B. Right click on the service and select reboot.

C. Right click on the service and select restart.

D. Enter the advanced password, right click on the service and select end process.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

When working with application flows, which statement about errors In syntax and logic in Orchestration Designer is true?

A. They appear in the problems view in Orchestration Designer.

B. The errors are signaled by Orchestration Designer at the instant they occur,

C. The errors are automatically corrected.

D. They appear in the error log view.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Which two tools are used to configure the email servers In Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS)? (Choose two.)

A. The ACCS Multimedia administration component

B. The Configuration component of the ACCS Launchpad

C. The outbound component of the ACCS Launchpad

D. The ACCS Ignition Wizard

Correct Answer: AD


Question 5:

Information in the Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS) historical database Is summarized into interval, daily, weekly, and monthly summaries.

If the current time is 8:05 AM, when could the first interval report be created that would include current activity?

A. Any time after 8:05 AM

B. After midnight

C. After 8:15 AM

D. After 9:00 AM

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

What are three of the Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS) data sets that must be backed up to protect the ACCS system? (Choose three.)

A. WebLM

B. ADMIN

C. CCMA

D. REGISTRY

E. CCT

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 7:

Which type of application variables are used to reference the sample prompts?

A. RAN type variables

B. STRING type variables

C. MUSIC type variables

D. LANGUAGE type variables

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Which of the Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS) Ignition Wizard configuration tasks is optional for a installations?

A. IP Office

B. Licensing

C. Multimedia

D. Security Settings

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

How many email agents are licensed on this Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS) system?

A. 0

B. 100

C. 250

D. 500

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which three statements about Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS) Software Appliance deployment are true? (Choose three.)

A. It consists of Avaya Aura Media Server OVA and Avaya WebLM OVA,

B. ACCS Release 7.1 software is available as an Open Virtual Appliance (OVA) file.

C. The ACCS software appliance is supported only on ESXI 6,7 virtualization environments.

D. WebLM OVA must deployed with the Disk Format – Thick Provision Lazy Zeroed.

E. The WebLM server Host ID is obtained from https;//weblm IP address:52233/WebLM/index.jsp

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 11:

Which two types of pegging thresholds will Impact both real-time displays and historical reports? (Choose two.)

A. Service Factor

B. Short call

C. Service Level

D. Display

Correct Answer: BD


Question 12:

Before a skillset threshold class will apply to a skillset, which action must be taken?

A. The skillset threshold class must be created and assigned to the skillset in configuration.

B. The skillset threshold class must be created and applied to the agents servicing the skillset.

C. The skillset threshold class must be created and assigned to the skillset in Orchestration Designer.

D. The skillset threshold class must be created and assigned to the skillset in Real-Time displays.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Contact Center calls arriving at the IP Office are not reaching the Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS) system.

What is causing this problem?

A. No agents are logged into any ACCS skillsets.

B. The control directory number is not acquired.

C. The master script is not activated.

D. The IP Office Short Code is not configured under the IP Office Server node.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Where are the media files that provide music and recorded announcements to contact center applications stored?

A. The Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS) contact center system

B. The IP Office voice mail system

C. The Avaya Aura Media Server (AAMS) dedicated for Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS)

D. The Avaya Aura Media Server (AAMS) from Communication Manager (CM)

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

To allow the Agent Desktop to login and authenticate each agent or supervisor/agent, which two accounts does the Avaya Contact Center Select (ACCS) solution support? (Choose two.)

A. SIP user account

B. IP Office user account

C. Active Directory Domain account

D. Windows user account

Correct Answer: CD


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Question 1:

To obtain protected files on a live machine with FTK Imager, which evidence item should be added?

A. image file

B. currently booted drive

C. server object settings

D. profile access control list

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

You successfully export and create a file hash list while using FTK Imager. Which three pieces of information are included in this file? (Choose three.)

A. MD5

B. SHA1

C. filename

D. record date

E. date modified

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 3:

Which statement is true about Processes to Perform in FTK?

A. Processing options can be chosen only when adding evidence.

B. Processing options can be chosen during or after adding evidence.

C. Processing options can be chosen only after evidence has been added.

D. If processing is not performed while adding evidence, the case must be started again.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Which pattern does the following regular expression recover? (\d{4}[\- ]){3}\d{4}

A. 000-000-0000

B. ddd-4-3-dddd-4-3

C. 000-00000-000-ABC

D. 0000-0000-0000-0000

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Click the Exhibit button.

What change do you make to the file filter shown in the exhibit in order to show only graphics with a logical size between 500 kilobytes and 10 megabytes?

A. You change all file status items to a red circle.

B. You change all file status items to a yellow triangle.

C. You make no change. The filter is correct as shown.

D. You change Graphics in the File Type column to a yellow triangle.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Which two options are available in the FTK Report Wizard? (Choose two.)

A. List by File Path

B. List File Properties

C. Include HTML File Listing

D. Include PRTK Output List

Correct Answer: AB


Question 7:

When using PRTK to attack encrypted files exported from a case, which statement is true?

A. PRTK will request the user access control list from FTK.

B. PRTK will generate temporary copies of decrypted files for printing.

C. FTK will stop all active jobs to allow PRTK to decrypt the exported files.

D. File hash values will change when they are saved in their decrypted format.

E. Additional interoperability between PRTK andNTAccess becomes available when files begin decrypting.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Which two Registry Viewer operations can be conducted from FTK? (Choose two.)

A. list SAM file account names in FTK

B. view all registry files from within FTK

C. createsubitems of individual keys for FTK

D. export a registry report to the FTK case report

Correct Answer: BD


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Question 1:

Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to create local, limited-privilege user accounts for other administrators. The other administrators will require only:

The ability to enable and disable services and servers Read-only access

Which built-in command policy permission level can the administrator use?

A. Read-only

B. Operator

C. Sysadmin

D. Network

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Where do the monitor probes originate by default, after creating and correctly configuring a custom user monitor?

A. MIP

B. SNIP

C. VIP

D. NSIP

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

What is one reason a Citrix Administrator should configure the AlwaysON VPN feature?

A. An employee needs to have client choices after logging on outside the enterprise network.

B. Management wants to regulate the network access provided to its users when they are connected to a VPN tunnel.

C. Management wants web traffic to go out locally instead of across the VPN.

D. An employee starts the laptop outside the enterprise network and needs assistance to establish VPN connectivity.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-gateway/current-release/vpn-user-config/always-on-vpnbefore-windows-logon.html


Question 4:

A Citrix Administrator wants to configure independent and isolated access on a single appliance to allow three different departments to manage and isolate their own applications.

What can the administrator configure to isolate department-level administration?

A. Dedicated routes in the admin partitions for each department

B. Admin partitions that use dedicated VLANs

C. Policy-based routes for each department in the nsroot partition

D. A VIP in each partition, and bind a VLAN for the department

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-adc/current-release/admin-partition.html


Question 5:

A Citrix Administrator receives user complaints about latency while accessing a published application that is load-balanced on the Citrix ADC.

Which Citrix Application Delivery Management (ADM) feature can the administrator use to gather information regarding response time, client network latency, and server-side processing time?

A. WAN Insight

B. Security Insight

C. Web Insight

D. Gateway Insight

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.citrix.com/content/dam/citrix/en_us/documents/data-sheet/citrix-applicationdelivery-management-data-sheet.pdf (5)


Question 6:

SAML is an authentication protocol based on _____________.

A. LDAP

B. XML

C. HTML

D. YAML

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which set of items can a Citrix Administrator change when configuring a portal theme for users?

A. Browser requirements, logo, labels

B. Logo, background, browser requirements

C. Font color, labels, URL displayed

D. Logo, background, labels

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX205486


Question 8:

Scenario: A Citrix Administrator manages an environment that has three SSL websites, all serving the same content.

www.company.com www.company.net www.company.org

The administrator would like to consolidate the websites into a single, load-balanced SSL virtual server.

What can the administrator bind to use a single SSL virtual server?

A. The certificate of each website to a single SSL virtual server

B. A wildcard certificate to a single SSL virtual server

C. A multiple SAN certificate to a single SSL virtual server

D. A wildcard certificate to a content-switching virtual server

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

In a single-hop deployment, a Citrix Administrator needs to use a client\’s IP address as the source IP address for Citrix ADC-to-server connections.

Which Citrix ADC mode can the administrator use to meet this requirement?

A. USIP

B. USNIP

C. Layer 2

D. Layer 3

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-adc/current-release/load-balancing/load-balancingadvanced-settings/usip-of-client.html


Question 10:

What does a Citrix Administrator need to configure to allow access to Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops without the use of a VPN or a clientless-access connection?

A. Ciphers group

B. SSL profile

C. Net profile

D. ICA proxy

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.carlstalhood.com/category/netscaler/netscaler-12/netscaler-gateway-12/


Question 11:

Which Citrix Gateway feature should a Citrix Administrator configure to allow traffic for specific iOS applications only?

A. Full SSL VPN tunnel for iOS

B. Per app VPN tunnel

C. Split DNS

D. SmartControl for iOS

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-gateway/citrix-gateway-clients/set-up-sso-for-ios-users.html


Question 12:

The Citrix ADC SDX architecture allows instances to share _____________ and _____________. (Choose the two correct options to complete the sentence.)

A. the kernel

B. CPU

C. memory D. physical interfaces

Correct Answer: BD


Question 13:

What can a Citrix Administrator configure to filter IPv4 addresses?

A. Pattern set

B. Data set

C. Citrix Web App Firewall

D. URL set

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Users accessing a published application through a Citrix Gateway virtual server require SSO to a StoreFront server using an external, secure, single URL.

Which type of virtual server can the administrator use to meet this requirement?

A. Priority Load Balancing

B. Load Balancing

C. Unified Gateway

D. VPN

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-gateway/current-release/about-citrix-gateway.html


Question 15:

Scenario: A Citrix Administrator configured the policies below:

POLICY 1: add rewrite action ACT_1 corrupt_http_header Accept-Encoding add rewrite policy POL_1 HTTP.REQ.IS_VALID ACT_1

POLICY 2:

add rewrite action ACT_2 insert_http_header Accept-Encoding “\”identity\””

add rewrite policy POL_2 “HTTP.REQ.IS_VALID” ACT_2

Which set of commands can the administrator use to bind the rewrite policies to the LB vserver lb_vsrv so

that POL_2 is evaluated after POL_1 is evaluated successfully?

A. bind lb vserver lb_vsrv -policyName POL_1 -priority 110 -gotoPriorityExpression NEXT -type REQUEST bind lb vserver lb_vsrv -policyName POL_2 -priority 100 -gotoPriorityExpression END -type REQUEST

B. bind lb vserver lb_vsrv -policyName POL_1 -priority 90 -type REQUEST bind lb vserver lb_vsrv -policyName POL_2 -priority 100 -type REQUEST

C. bind lb vserver lb_vsrv -policyName POL_1 -priority 90 -gotoPriorityExpression END -type REQUEST bind lb vserver lb_vsrv -policyName POL_2 -priority 80 -gotoPriorityExpression NEXT -type REQUEST

D. bind lb vserver lb_vsrv -policyName POL_1 -priority 90 -gotoPriorityExpression NEXT -type REQUEST bind lb vserver lb_vsrv -policyName POL_2 -priority 100 -gotoPriorityExpression END -type REQUEST

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up estimating as a tool or technique?

A. Estimate Activity Resources

B. Sequence Activities

C. Estimate Activity Durations

D. Develop Schedule

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Which project risk listed in the table below is most likely to occur?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which is an enterprise environmental factor?

A. Marketplace conditions

B. Policies and procedures

C. Project files from previous projects

D. Lessons learned from previous projects

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

The purpose of developing a project scope management plan is to:

A. Manage the timely completion of the project.

B. Ensure that the project includes all of the work required.

C. Make sure the project will satisfy the needs for which it was begun.

D. Reduce the risk of negative events in the project.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the cost variance (CV) for Task 6?

A. -2,000

B. 0

C. 1,000

D. 2,000

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

One of the key benefits of the Plan Human Resource Management process is that it:

A. outlines team selection guidelines and team member responsibilities.

B. establishes project roles and responsibilities.

C. improves teamwork, interpersonal skills, and competencies.

D. provides an accurate appraisal of team member performance.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which type of analysis is used to determine the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and actual performance?

A. Schedule network analysis

B. Reserve analysis

C. Alternative analysis

D. Variance analysis

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Organizational process assets, a lessons-learned database, and historical information are all inputs to which process?

A. Plan Cost Management

B. Plan Scope Management

C. Plan Stakeholder Management

D. Plan Schedule Management

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Project Scope Management is primarily concerned with:

A. Developing a detailed description of the project and product.

B. Determining how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed.

C. Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project.

D. Formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

The lowest level normally depicted in a work breakdown structure (VVBS) is called a/an:

A. work package

B. deliverable

C. milestone

D. activity

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

In the Plan Procurement Management process, which source selection criteria analyzes if the seller\’s proposed technical methodologies, techniques, solutions, and services meet the procurement documents requirements?

A. Technical approach

B. Technical capability

C. Business size and type

D. Production capacity and interest

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

The following is a network diagram for a project.

What is the critical path for the project?

A. A-B-C-F-G-I

B. A-B-C-F-H-I

C. A-D-E-F-G-I

D. A-D-E-F-H-I

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

The following is a network diagram for a project.

How many possible paths are identified for this project?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 6

D. 7

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Variance and trend analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?

A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C. Control Risks

D. Plan Risk Responses

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:

A. Close Procurements.

B. Control Procurements.

C. Plan Procurements.

D. Conduct Procurements.

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

As the technical lead for your project, you have been asked to recommend a new solution to handle frequently increasing loads on your applications. The Weblogic 12.1.2 domain currently runs with two clusters of three servers with request being filtered and passed by a proxy server that users the round -robin algorithm.

However, the load sometimes exceeds the maximum capacity of all these servers combined but your domain lacks in scalability. What is the best implementation solution?

A. Add a third cluster and spread existing server instances across the clusters.

B. Modify the proxy server load balancing algorithm to weight based.

C. Configure dynamic clusters and specify the number of server instances you anticipate at needing at peak load.

D. Tune work managers to optimize work.

E. Replace the software load balancer with a hardware load balancer.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

All administrators that deal with the production domain in your organization are extremely experienced. As the lead administrator, you have been asked to change the administration console preferences for all administrators so that inline help

no longer displays, since no one needs It.

Select the true statement about this scenario.

A. There is nothing you can do since inline help cannot be disabled.

B. There is nothing you can do for all users, since disabling inline help must be done per user.

C. Log into the administration console and disable Inline help under “help.”

D. Access WLST, connect to the domain\’s admin server, and use the command enable inline help (false).

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Your domain consists of 30 servers. You are using the Administration Console. Which is the quickest way to identify the servers that are in a Failed health state?

A. Use the Filter button from the domain\’s Monitoring >Health tab.

B. Use the Monitoring >Health tab for each server in the domain.

C. Write a custom WLST script to print out failed server.

D. Capture a diagnostic snapshot.

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

You use the Java –based Node Manager to start your managed servers. You want Node Manager to:

Stop servers by using your custom stop script: mystopit.sh

Restart servers when the hardware cases

Use SSL communication

Check server heath once per second

Below are portions of the nodemanager.properties file. Select the one that configures Node manager as described.

A. B. C. D. E.

Correct Answer: E


Question 5:

Which three statements are true about WebLogic clusters?

A. Clusters provide clients with transparent failover.

B. EJB applications can be targeted to entire cluster.

C. All cluster members must bind to the same port number.

D. Cluster members replicate application data by using heartbeats.

E. Cluster members can be associated with one or more domains.

F. Web applications require a proxy in order to be used in a cluster.

Correct Answer: ABF


Question 6:

You are creating and configuring a cluster by using the administration console. Which two statements are true?

A. All servers that will be part of the cluster must be created before the cluster is created.

B. You must pick the cluster messaging mode.

C. Even though you create a non dynamic cluster, you can change it to a dynamic cluster later.

D. Once the cluster is created, you cannot change its messaging mode.

E. The administration console does not provide a way to manually migrate singleton services. It must be set up to be done automatically or by using WLST.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 7:

One Managed Server that is part of a large domain throws java.lang.out of Memory error (OOM) occasionally.

You have been monitoring this server with the jvisualVM tool but that didn\’t help because the issue occurs infrequently and not a specific scenario. So you decided to force the server to dump the heap memory as soon as an OOM gets thrown in order to analyze the dump file later.

How do you modify the Java HotSpot Startup command to enable this feature and save the dump in the directory D:\hprof-dumps\?

A. Add-xx: DumpHeaponoutofmemory-xx:Dumppath=D:\hprof.

B. Add-xx: HeapDumponoutofmemoryError-xx:Heapdumppath=D:\hprof-dumps.

C. Add-xx: DumpHeaponoutofmemoryError-xx:Heappath=D:\hprof-dump.

D. Add-xx: HeapdumponoutofMemory-xx:HeapDumppath=D:\hprof-dumps.

E. Add-xx: HeapDumponoutofMemoryError-xx:Dumppath=D\hprof-dumps.

F. Add-xx: HeapDumponoutofMemoryExecepttion-xx:HeapDumppath=D:\hprof-dumps.

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

You are using the Administration console to monitor a resource.

Which three techniques can you use to customize the monitoring output?

A. Sort the rows by a specific column.

B. Limit the number of rows displayed.

C. Change the order of the displayed columns.

D. Views the rows from a specific time range.

E. Combine (add) multiple columns together.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 9:

You are working for a software company that mostly dealt with creating and reusing C and.NET objects. There are many COM (Component Object Model) components that have been created over time that provide standardized functionalities. Recently, platform independence has become a major consideration for your organization and you have deployed WebLogic server12c.But you would like to make use of some of your prebuilt COM objects for request processing. You need an interim solution before implementing web services.

Which artifact within WebLogic server helps you achieve your objective?

A. Messaging Bridge

B. IDL Mapper

C. jCOM

D. XML Registry

E. COM2 Java

Correct Answer: E


Question 10:

An application fails. The exception Indicates that the JDEM data source cannot be found. Identify two possible steps that you can perform to verify the data source\’s availability.

A. Launch the JDBC Diagnostics utility.

B. Verify the Dependencies attribute of the data source.

C. View the target server\’s JNDI tree in the console.

D. Verify that the application and data source have the same target.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 11:

Which three statements are true about the default behavior of WebLogic server proxy plug-ins?

A. The proxy will pin a client to a specific server if a session cookie is created.

B. The proxy fails over to another server if a connection or request times out.

C. The proxy distributes requests to cluster members based on their CPU usage.

D. The proxy dynamically learns the latest locations of cluster members.

E. The proxy always uses SSL, regardless of the client\’s protocol.

F. The proxy replicates session data to its backup proxy.

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 12:

Each domain has a directory called servers that contains subdirectories for each server in the domain. Your domain has a managed server managed managed1.

When will the managed1 directory be created?

A. When the managed1 server is defined in the Configuration WIZARD

B. When the domain is created

C. When the Administration server comes up for the first time

D. When the managed1 server comes up for the first time

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Which two metrics are used to monitor and troubleshoot unicast communication in a cluster?

A. Groups

B. Master

C. Backup server

D. Session Replicas E. Local Group Leader

Correct Answer: AE


Question 14:

The startup of a Weblogic Server instance fails with the error message: java.net.BindExcepttion:Address already in use

Which two methods help identify what is currently listening at the port and the Ip this server is configured to be bound to?

A. The pmap command lists all processes running with their associated port member.

B. The UNIX 1sof command can report information on the process that is listening at a particular IP and port.

C. netstat, which is available on Windows and Linux/UNIX, can report on the process bound to this IP and port.

D. Pstat will report detailed runtime statistics on any process currently listening at this IP and port.

E. The Linux port watching tool port info can raise an alert anytime a process attempts. succeeds, or fails to connect to a specific IP and port. It can also be used to identify if a port is being used by a java process.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 15:

You want to configure WebLogic server transactions to be recoverable when a nonclustered managed server crashes, even if that crash is caused by an unrecoverable hardware failure. You want to run the managed server on different

hardware, and have it recover the transactions that were in-progress at the time of the crash.

You also want to use the default store for transaction logs.

Which statement is true?

A. This scenario is not possible .You must use the JDBC store to recover transactions from a crashed server.

B. This scenario is not possible. You must use clustered managed servers to recover transactions from a crashed server.

C. This scenario is common , and so the default configuration of the default store works.

D. Before the crash ,you need to update the path to the default store for the managed server. The path should be to some shared storage location.

E. After the crash, obtain a copy of the managed server\’s default store from the administration server. Move it to the same relative location on the new hardware before starting the managed server there.

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

Which one of the statements describes a service aggregator pattern?

A. It is implemented in each service separately and uses a streaming service

B. It involves implementing a separate service that makes multiple calls to other backend services

C. It uses a queue on both sides of the service communication

D. It involves sending events through a message broker

Correct Answer: B

this pattern isolates an operation that makes calls to multiple back-end microservices, centralizing its logic into a specialized microservice.


Question 2:

You have been asked to create a stateful application deployed in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI)

Container Engine for Kubernetes (OKE) that requires all of your worker nodes to mount and write data to

persistent volumes.

Which two OCI storage services should you use?

A. Use OCI File Services as persistent volume.

B. Use GlusterFS as persistent volume.

C. Use OCI Block Volume backed persistent volume.

D. Use open source storage solutions on top of OCI.

E. Use OCI Object Storage as persistent volume.

Correct Answer: AC

A PersistentVolume (PV) is a piece of storage in the cluster that has been provisioned by an administrator. PVs are volume plugins like Volumes, but have a lifecycle independent of any individual Pod that uses the PV. A PersistentVolumeClaim (PVC) is a request for storage by a user. It is similar to a Pod. Pods consume node resources and PVCs consume PV resources. If you intend to create Kubernetes persistent volumes, sufficient block volume quota must be available in each availability domain to meet the persistent volume claim. Persistent volume claims must request a minimum of 50 gigabytes You can define and apply a persistent volume claim to your cluster, which in turn creates a persistent volume that\’s bound to the claim. A claim is a block storage volume in the underlying IaaS provider that\’s durable and offers persistent storage, enabling your data to remain intact, regardless of whether the containers that the storage is connected to are terminated. With Oracle Cloud Infrastructure as the underlying IaaS provider, you can provision persistent volume claims by attaching volumes from the Block Storage service.


Question 3:

Which two handle Oracle Functions authentication automatically?

A. Oracle Cloud Infrastructure SDK

B. cURL

C. Oracle Cloud Infrastructure CLl

D. Signed HTTP Request

E. Fn Project CLI

Correct Answer: CE

Fn Project CLI you can create an Fn Project CLI Context to Connect to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure and specify — provider oracle This option enables Oracle Functions to perform authentication and authorization using Oracle Cloud Infrastructure request signing, private keys, user groups, and policies that grant permissions to those user groups.


Question 4:

You are building a cloud native, serverless travel application with multiple Oracle Functions in Java, Python and Node.js. You need to build and deploy these functions to a single applications named travel-app. Which command will help you complete this task successfully?

A. oci fn function deploy –ap travel-ap –all

B. fn deploy –ap travel-ap — all

C. oci fn application –application-name-ap deploy –all

D. fn function deploy –all –application-name travel-ap

Correct Answer: B

check the steps for Creating, Deploying, and Invoking a Helloworld Function https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/ en-us/iaas/Content/Functions/Tasks/functionscreatingfirst.htm in step 7 that will deploy the funcation 7Enter the following single Fn Project command to build the function and its dependencies as a Docker image called helloworld-func, push the image to the specified Docker registry, and deploy the function to Oracle Functions in the helloworld-app: $ fn -v deploy –app helloworld-app The -v option simply shows more detail about what Fn Project commands are doing (see Using the Fn Project CLI with Oracle Functions).


Question 5:

A pod security policy (PSP) is implemented in your Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Container Engine for Kubernetes cluster Which rule can you use to prevent a container from running as root using PSP?

A. NoPrivilege

B. RunOnlyAsUser

C. MustRunAsNonRoot

D. forbiddenRoot

Correct Answer: C

# Require the container to run without root privileges.

rule: \’MustRunAsNonRoot\’

Reference: https://kubernetes.io/docs/concepts/policy/pod-security-policy/


Question 6:

You are working on a serverless DevSecOps application using Oracle Functions. You have deployed a Python function that uses the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Python SDK to stop any OC1 Compute instance that does not comply with your corporate security standards There are 3 non compliant OCI Compute instances. However, when you invoke this function none of the instances were stopped. How should you troubleshoot this?

A. There is no way to troubleshoot a function running on Oracle Functions.

B. Enable function logging in the OCI console, include some print statements in your function code and use logs to troubleshoot this.

C. Enable function remote debugging in the OCI console, and use your favorite IDE to inspect the function running on Oracle Functions.

D. Enable function tracing in the OCI console, and go to OCI Monitoring console to see the function stack trace.

Correct Answer: B

Storing and Viewing Function Logs When a function you\’ve deployed to Oracle Functions is invoked, you\’ll typically want to store the function\’s logs so that you can review them later. You specify where Oracle Functions stores a function\’s logs by setting a logging policy for the application containing the function. You set application logging policies in the Console. Whenever a function is invoked in this application, its logs are stored according to the logging policy that you specified. you can view the logs for a function that have been stored in a storage bucket in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Object Storage https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/Functions/Tasks/functionsexportingfunctionlogfiles.htm


Question 7:

Which statement accurately describes Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Load Balancer integration with OCI Container Engine for Kubernetes (OKE)?

A. OKE service provisions an OCI Load Balancer instance for each Kubernetes service with LoadBalancer type in the YAML configuration.

B. OCI Load Balancer instance provisioning is triggered by OCI Events service for each Kubernetes service with LoadBalancer type in the YAML configuration.

C. OCI Load Balancer instance must be manually provisioned for each Kubernetes service that requires traffic balancing.

D. OKE service provisions a single OCI Load Balancer instance shared with all the Kubernetes services with LoadBalancer type in the YAML configuration.

Correct Answer: D

If you are running your Kubernetes cluster on Oracle Container Engine for Kubernetes (commonly known as OKE), you can have OCI automatically provision load balancers for you by creating a Service of type LoadBalancer instead of (or in addition to) installing an ingress controller like Traefik or Voyage YAML file

When you apply this YAML file to your cluster, you will see the new service is created. After a short time (typically less than a minute) the OCI Load Balancer will be provisioned.

https://oracle.github.io/weblogic-kubernetes-operator/faq/oci-lb/


Question 8:

Which Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) load balancer shape is used by default in OCI container Engineer for Kubernetes?

A. 400 Mbps

B. 8000 Mbps

C. There is no default. The shape has to be specified.

D. 100 Mbps

Correct Answer: D

Specifying Alternative Load Balancer Shapes The shape of an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure load balancer specifies its maximum total bandwidth (that is, ingress plus egress). By default, load balancers are created with a shape of 100Mbps. Other shapes are available, including 400Mbps and 8000Mbps. https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/ContEng/Tasks/contengcreatingloadbalancer.htm


Question 9:

You have written a Node.js function and deployed it to Oracle Functions. Next, you need to call this

function from a microservice written in Java deployed on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Container

Engine for Kubernetes (OKE).

Which can help you to achieve this?

A. Use the OCI CLI with kubect1 to invoke the function from the microservice.

B. Oracle Functions does not allow a microservice deployed on OKE to invoke a function.

C. OKE does not allow a microservice to invoke a function from Oracle Functions.

D. Use the OCI Java SDK to invoke the function from the microservice.

Correct Answer: D

You can invoke a function that you\’ve deployed to Oracle Functions in different ways:

Using the Fn Project CLI.

Using the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure CLI.

Using the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure SDKs.

Making a signed HTTP request to the function\’s invoke endpoint. Every function has an invoke endpoint.


Question 10:

A developer using Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) API Gateway must authenticate the API requests to their web application. The authentication process must be implemented using a custom scheme which accepts string parameters from the API caller. Which method can the developer use In this scenario?

A. Create an authorizer function using request header authorization.

B. Create an authorizer function using token-based authorization.

C. Create a cross account functions authorizer.

D. Create an authorizer function using OCI Identity and Access Management based authentication

Correct Answer: B

Having deployed the authorizer function, you enable authentication and authorization for an API deployment by including two different kinds of request policy in the API deployment specification: An authentication request policy for the entire API deployment that specifies:The OCID of the authorizer function that you deployed to Oracle Functions that will perform authentication and authorization.The request attributes to pass to the authorizer function.Whether unauthenticated callers can access routes in the API deployment. An authorization request policy for each route that specifies the operations a caller is allowed to perform, based on the caller\’s access scopes as returned by the authorizer function. Using the Console to Add Authentication and Authorization Request Policies To add authentication and authorization request policies to an API deployment specification using the Console: Create or update an API deployment using the Console, select the From Scratch option, and enter details on the Basic Information page. For more information, see Deploying an API on an API Gateway by Creating an API Deployment and Updating API Gateways and API Deployments. In the API Request Policies section of the Basic Information page, click the Add button beside Authentication and specify: Application in : The name of the application in Oracle Functions that contains the authorizer function. You can select an application from a different compartment. Function Name: The name of the authorizer function in Oracle Functions. Authentication Token: Whether the access token is contained in a request header or a query parameter. Authentication Token Value: Depending on whether the access token is contained in a request header or a query parameter, specify:

Header Name: If the access token is contained in a request header, enter the name of the header. Parameter Name: If the access token is contained in a query parameter, enter the name of the query parameter. https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/APIGateway/Tasks/apigatewayaddingauthzauthn.htm


Question 11:

Which is NOT a valid option to execute a function deployed on Oracle Functions?

A. Send a signed HTTP requests to the function\’s invoke endpoint

B. Invoke from Oracle Cloud Infrastructure CLI

C. Invoke from Docker CLI

D. Trigger by an event in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Events service

E. Invoke from Fn Project CLI

Correct Answer: C

You can invoke a function that you\’ve deployed to Oracle Functions in different ways:

Using the Fn Project CLI.

Using the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure CLI.

Using the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure SDKs.

Making a signed HTTP request to the function\’s invoke endpoint. Every function has an invoke endpoint.

Each of the above invokes the function via requests to the API. Any request to the API must be

authenticated by including a signature and the OCID of the compartment to which the function belongs in

the request header. Such a request is referred to as a \’signed\’ request. The signature includes Oracle

Cloud Infrastructure credentials in an encrypted form.


Question 12:

How do you perform a rolling update in Kubernetes?

A. kubect1 rolling-update

B. kubect1 upgrade –image=*image:v2

C. kubect1 update -c

D. kubect1 rolling-update –image=image

Correct Answer: A

https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/iaas/wercker-cloud/wercm/quickstarts/platforms/kubernetes/


Question 13:

Your Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Container Engine for Kubernetes (OKE) administrator has created an

OKE cluster with one node pool in a public subnet. You have been asked to provide a log file from one of

the nodes for troubleshooting purpose.

Which step should you take to obtain the log file?

A. ssh into the node using public key.

B. ssh into the nodes using private key.

C. It is impossible since OKE is a managed Kubernetes service.

D. Use the username open and password to login.

Correct Answer: B

Kubernetes cluster is a group of nodes. The nodes are the machines running applications. Each node can be a physical machine or a virtual machine. The node\’s capacity (its number of CPUs and amount of memory) is defined when the node is created. A cluster comprises: – one or more master nodes (for high availability, typically there will be a number of master nodes) – one or more worker nodes (sometimes known as minions) Connecting to Worker Nodes Using SSH If you provided a public SSH key when creating the node pool in a cluster, the public key is installed on all worker nodes in the cluster. On UNIX and UNIX-like platforms (including Solaris and Linux), you can then connect through SSH to the worker nodes using the ssh utility (an SSH client) to perform administrative tasks. Note the following instructions assume the UNIX machine you use to connect to the worker node: Has the ssh utility installed. Has access to the SSH private key file paired with the SSH public key that was specified when the cluster was created. How to connect to worker nodes using SSH depends on whether you specified public or private subnets for the worker nodes when defining the node pools in the cluster. Connecting to Worker Nodes in Public Subnets Using SSH Before you can connect to a worker node in a public subnet using SSH, you must define an ingress rule in the subnet\’s security list to allow SSH access. The ingress rule must allow access to port 22 on worker nodes from source 0.0.0.0/0 and any source port To connect to a worker node in a public subnet through SSH from a UNIX machine using the ssh utility: 1- Find out the IP address of the worker node to which you want to connect. You can do this in a number of ways: Using kubectl. If you haven\’t already done so, follow the steps to set up the cluster\’s kubeconfig configuration file and (if necessary) set the KUBECONFIG environment variable to point to the file. Note that you must set up your own kubeconfig file. You cannot access a cluster using a kubeconfig file that a different user set up. See Setting Up Cluster Access. Then in a terminal window, enter kubectl get nodes to see the public IP addresses of worker nodes in node pools in the cluster. Using the Console. In the Console, display the Cluster List page and then select the cluster to which the worker node belongs. On the Node Pools tab, click the name of the node pool to which the worker node belongs. On the Nodes tab, you see the public IP address of every worker node in the node pool. Using the REST API. Use the ListNodePools operation to see the public IP addresses of worker nodes in a node pool. 2- In the terminal window, enter ssh [email protected] to connect to the worker node, where is the IP address of the worker node that you made a note of earlier. For example, you might enter ssh [email protected] Note that if the SSH private key is not stored in the file or in the path that the ssh utility expects (for example, the ssh utility might expect the private key to be stored in ~/.ssh/id_rsa), you must explicitly specify the private key filename and location in one of two ways: Use the -i option to specify the filename and location of the private key. For example, ssh -i ~/.ssh/ my_keys/my_host_key_filename [email protected] Add the private key filename and location to an SSH

configuration file, either the client configuration file (~/.ssh/config) if it exists, or the system-wide client

configuration file (/etc/ssh/ssh_config). For example, you might add the following:

Host 192.0.2.254 IdentityFile ~/.ssh/my_keys/my_host_key_filename

For more about the ssh utility\’s configuration file, enter man ssh_config Note also that permissions on the

private key file must allow you read/write/execute access, but prevent other users from accessing the file.

For example, to set appropriate permissions, you might enter chmod 600 ~/.ssh/my_keys/

my_host_key_filename. If permissions are not set correctly and the private key file is accessible to other

users, the ssh utility will simply ignore the private key file.


Question 14:

Which two “Action Type” options are NOT available in an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Events rule definition?

A. Notifications

B. Functions

C. Streaming

D. Email

E. Slack

Correct Answer: DE

https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/Events/Concepts/eventsoverview.htm ACTIONS Event Rules must also specify an action to trigger when the filter finds a matching event. Actions are responses you define for event matches. You set up select Oracle Cloud Infrastructure services that the Events service has established as actions. The resources for these services act as destinations for matching events. When the filter in the rule finds a match, the Events service delivers the matching event to one or more of the destinations you identified in the rule. The destination service that receives the event then processes the event in whatever manner you defined. This delivery provides the automation in your environment. You can only deliver events to certain Oracle Cloud Infrastructure services with a rule. Use the following services to create actions: Notifications Streaming Functions


Question 15:

You are developing a polyglot serverless application using Oracle Functions. Which language cannot be used to write your function code?

A. PL/SQL

B. Python

C. Node.js

D. Java

Correct Answer: A

The serverless and elastic architecture of Oracle Functions means there\’s no infrastructure administration or software administration for you to perform. You don\’t provision or maintain compute instances, and operating system software patches and upgrades are applied automatically. Oracle Functions simply ensures your app is highly-available, scalable, secure, and monitored. With Oracle Functions, you can write code in Java, Python, Node, Go, and Ruby (and for advanced use cases, bring your own Dockerfile, and Graal VM). You can then deploy your code, call it directly or trigger it in response to events, and get billed only for the resources consumed during the execution.


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