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Question 1:

A customer is a cloud provider who needs a new storage array. They want a solution that has built-in multi-tenancy features. Why should you propose HPE 3PAR StoreServ to the customer?

A. It divides controller nodes into groups for multiple tenants.

B. It includes the virtual domains feature as part of all-inclusive licensing.

C. It divides drives into separate pools for multiple tenants.

D. It includes the NPARs feature for physical separation of the array into tenant areas.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/4aa3-3516enw.pdf


Question 2:

A customer is looking for a new platform to support their AI research projects. Which technology should you recommend?

A. Peer Persistence

B. Multi-core GPUs

C. Availability clustering

D. Persistent memory

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/emea_europe/en/solutions/infosight.html


Question 3:

A customer is looking to virtualize desktops and application access to provide better business continuance and disaster recovery. They also need simplified deployment and the ability to scale out in the feature. Which HPE platform should you recommend?

A. Edgeline

B. ProLiant DL

C. Superdome Flex

D. SimpliVity

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/a00019351enw.pdf


Question 4:

What must be taken into account when using the HPE FlexFabric 5945 4-slot Switch as a ToR switch in a solution?

A. adding in a Network Analytics Engine license

B. specifying a fan tray with the appropriate direction of airflow

C. adding in an Intelligent Resilient Framework license

D. selecting power supplies with adequate reserve PoE capacity

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/uk/en/product-catalog/networking/networking-switches/pip.hpe-flexfabric-5945-switch-series.1010931108.html


Question 5:

A customer wants to implement a container platform across their enterprise data center. They need to automate hardware and software configurations to quickly provision and deploy at scale. Which authentication solution should you recommend?

A. Red Hat Ansible Tower

B. OpenStack on OpenStack

C. Chef

D. DevStack

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A customer is purchasing a full rack of DL380 Gen10 servers. They are under a severe time constraint and would like the servers to be ready to receive applications upon power up. What should be recommended to satisfy this requirement?

A. Use HPE Proactive Care services.

B. Use HP Pointnext service patching and OS installation services.

C. Include a Customer Intent Document with the order, requesting OS installation services.

D. Nothing additional: all servers arrive from the factory ready for application deployment.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

A customer contacts you for assistance with an expansion of their current HPE Synergy environment. The existing environment contains:

1.

one Synergy 12000 frame

2.

two Composers

3.

eight SY480 Compute Modules – 1 CPU – 384GB RAM – 3820C 10/20GbE CNA

4.

one D3940 Storage Module

The new requirement is 16Gb FC connectivity to a newly-deployed 3PAR storage array.

Which components should you include? (Choose two.)

A. Synergy 3830C Host Bus Adapter

B. two QSFP AOC/DAC cables for ICM clustering

C. a second CPU per Compute Module

D. HPE Synergy FC License Upgrade per Composer pair

E. an additional Virtual Connect SE 40Gb F8

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=c05061206


Question 8:

A customer running multiple HPE Synergy frames wants to change a parameter in the BIOS of all their VMware servers, based on the recommendations of their VMware team. Where is the most efficient location to make this change?

A. iLO Federation

B. Server Profile Template

C. Logical Enclosure

D. ROM Based Setup Utility (RBSU)

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

A customer asks you about the features of the HPE SimpliVity, such as performance, availability, efficiency, and protection. Which statement is correct about an HPE SimpliVity solution that enables these features?

A. The OmniStack Accelerator Card (OAC) contains a FPGA programmed with HPE SimpliVity deduplication, compression, and optimization algorithms.

B. The OmniStack Accelerator Card (OAC) connects directly to the iSCSI VIP address enabled by the OVC.

C. The OmniStack Accelerator Card (OAC) has direct hardware access to the two PCIe cards through VM direct path IO.

D. The OmniStack Virtual Controller(OVC) creates an iSCSI datastore where the hypervisor stores the workload VMs.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/a00009003enw.pdf (6)


Question 10:

In preparation for a customer presentation, you need to provide meaningful estimates of cooling requirements for HPE ProLiant, HPE Apollo, and HPE Synergy servers. What should you use?

A. HPE Synergy Planning Tool

B. HPE Proposal Web

C. HPE Server Memory Configurator

D. HPE Power Advisor

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA6-2925ENW.pdf


Question 11:

A customer requires front panel access for their Gen10 servers. What is required to meet this need?

A. a USB 2.0 Ethernet adapter

B. an installed iLo Advance license

C. Secure Boot enabled

D. Two-factor authentication enabled

Correct Answer: A

HPE iLO Service port – How to use it?


Question 12:

You are designing a highly-available SQL database solution, following HPE reference architectures for Microsoft SQL 2017 on Linux. Which HA design factors should be considered? (Choose two.)

A. Real-Time Operational Analytics

B. Transparent Data Encryption

C. Always On Failover Cluster Instance (FCI)

D. Read-Scale Availability Groups

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/V2/GetPDF.aspx/a00036336enw.pdf


Question 13:

A customer is looking for a switch virtualization feature that can help them simplify the management of their HPE FlexFabric switches. Which technology should you recommend?

A. VSF

B. MSTP

C. VXLAN

D. IRF

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=emr_na-c04214037anddocLocale=en_US (6)


Question 14:

A customer is asking for the latest version of the HPE Nimble Storage Integration Guide. Where can the customer download the guide?

A. HPE SPOCK

B. HPE Product Bulletin

C. HPE InfoSight

D. HPE Information Library

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://community.hpe.com/t5/Application-Integration/Announcing-the-release-of-HPE-Nimble-Storage-PowerShell-Toolkit/td-p/7017899#.XgCDWmbVLiw


Question 15:

A customer is interested in a Synergy solution. They need 100 compute modules and expect the workload to double in two years. They ask for the minimum number of management ports they will need to connect Synergy frames into their management network. How should you reply?

A. FLMs from all frames connect into a management ring, and the management ring connects into their management network with two uplinks.

B. FLMs from all frames connect to two external switches, and these two switches connect into their management network.

C. Synergy solution only allows 15 frames to be interconnected, so growth in customer\’s workload is not supported.

D. The RJ-45 ports on the front of each frame are connected to an external switch, which is connected into their management network.

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

You want to automatically generate the encryption and authentication keys during IPsec VPN establishment. What would be used to accomplish this task?

A. IPsec

B. Diffie_Hellman

C. Main mode

D. Aggregate mode

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which two segments describes IPsec VPNs? (Choose two.)

A. IPsec VPN traffic is always authenticated.

B. IPsec VPN traffic is always encrypted.

C. IPsec VPNs use security to secure traffic over a public network between two remote sites.

D. IPsec VPNs are dedicated physical connections between two private networks.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 3:

Which flow module components handles processing for UTM?

A. Policy

B. Zones

C. Services

D. Screen options

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Which two match conditions would be used in both static NAT and destination NAT rule sets? (Choose two.)

A. Destination zone

B. Destination interface

C. Source interface

D. Source zone

Correct Answer: BD


Question 5:

Which statement about IPsec is correct?

A. IPsec can be used to transport native Layer 2 packets.

B. IPsec can provide encapsulation but not encryption

C. IPsec is a standards-based protocol.

D. IPsec is used to provide data replication

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

What should you configure if you want to translate private source IP address to a single public IP address?

A. Source NAT

B. Destination NAT

C. Content filtering

D. Security Director

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

You are configuring an IPsec VPN tunnel between two location on your network. Each packet must be encrypted and authenticated. Which protocol would satisfy these requirements?

A. MD5

B. ESP

C. AH

D. SHA

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

You have created a zones-based security policy that permits traffic to a specific webserver for the marketing team. Other groups in the company are not permitted to access the webserver. When marketing users attempt to access the server they are unable to do so. What are two reasons for this access failure? (Choose two.)

A. You failed to change the source zone to include any source zone.

B. You failed to position the policy after the policy that denies access to the webserver.

C. You failed to commit the policy change.

D. You failed to position the policy before the policy that denies access the webserver

Correct Answer: CD


Question 9:

Which statements is correct about SKY ATP?

A. Sky ATP is an open-source security solution.

B. Sky ATP is used to automatically push out changes to the AppSecure suite.

C. Sky ATP only support sending threat feeds to vSRX Series devices

D. Sky ATP is a cloud-based security threat analyzer that performs multiple tasks

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Which type of security policy protect restricted services from running on non-standard ports?

A. Application firewall

B. IDP

C. Sky ATP

D. antivirus

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which statement is correct about IKE?

A. IKE phase 1 is used to establish the data path

B. IKE phase 1 only support aggressive mode.

C. IKE phase 1 negotiates a secure channel between gateways.

D. IKE phase 1 establishes the tunnel between devices

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Which two private cloud solution support vSRX devices? (Choose two.)

A. Microsoft Azure

B. Amazon Web Services (AWS)

C. VMware Web Services (AWS)

D. VMware NSX

E. Contrail Cloud

Correct Answer: AB


Question 13:

You want to integrate an SRX Series device with SKY ATP. What is the first action to accomplish task?

A. Issue the commit script to register the SRX Series device.

B. Copy the operational script from the Sky ATP Web UI.

C. Create an account with the Sky ATP Web UI.

D. Create the SSL VPN tunnel between the SRX Series device and Sky ATP.

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

What are the valid actions for a source NAT rule in J-Web? (choose three.)

A. On

B. Off

C. Pool

D. Source

E. interface

Correct Answer: BCE

https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos/topics/topic-map/nat-security-source-and- source-pool.html


Question 15:

What must you do first to use the Monitor/Alarms/Policy Log workspace in J-Web?

A. You must enable logging that uses the SD-Syslog format.

B. You must enable security logging that uses the TLS transport mode.

C. You must enable stream mode security logging on the SRX Series device.

D. You must enable event mode security logging on the SRX Series device.

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

You are inserting 1000 new items every second in a DynamoDB table. Once an hour these items are analyzed and then are no longer needed. You need to minimize provisioned throughput, storage, and API calls.

Given these requirements, what is the most efficient way to manage these Items after the analysis?

A. Retain the items in a single table

B. Delete items individually over a 24 hour period

C. Delete the table and create a new table per hour

D. Create a new table per hour

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

You have written an application that uses the Elastic Load Balancing service to spread traffic to several

web servers. Your users complain that they are sometimes forced to login again in the middle of using your

application, after they have already logged in. This is not behavior you have designed.

What is a possible solution to prevent this happening?

A. Use instance memory to save session state.

B. Use instance storage to save session state.

C. Use EBS to save session state

D. Use ElastiCache to save session state.

E. Use Glacier to save session slate.

Correct Answer: D

https://aws.amazon.com/caching/session-management/


Question 3:

How can you secure data at rest on an EBS volume?

A. Attach the volume to an instance using EC2\’s SSL interface.

B. Write the data randomly instead of sequentially.

C. Use an encrypted file system on top of the BBS volume.

D. Encrypt the volume using the S3 server-side encryption service.

E. Create an IAM policy that restricts read and write access to the volume.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

An application is designed to use Amazon SQS to manage messages from many independent senders. Each sender\’s messages must be processed in the order they are received.

Which SQS feature should be implemented by the Developer?

A. Configure each sender with a unique MessageGroupId

B. Enable MessageDeduplicationIds on the SQS queue

C. Configure each message with unique MessageGroupIds.

D. Enable ContentBasedDeduplication on the SQS queue

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

A Developer wants to find a list of items in a global secondary index from an Amazon DynamoDB table.

Which DynamoDB API call can the Developer use in order to consume the LEAST number of read capacity units?

A. Scan operation using eventually-consistent reads

B. Query operation using strongly-consistent reads

C. Query operation using eventually-consistent reads

D. Scan operation using strongly-consistent reads

Correct Answer: C

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/amazondynamodb/latest/developerguide/bp-query-scan.html


Question 6:

Queries to an Amazon DynamoDB table are consuming a large amount of read capacity. The table has a significant number of large attributes. The application does not need all of the attribute data.

How can DynamoDB costs be minimized while maximizing application performance?

A. Batch all the writes, and perform the write operations when no or few reads are being performed.

B. Create a global secondary index with a minimum set of projected attributes.

C. Implement exponential backoffs in the application.

D. Load balance the reads to the table using an Application Load Balancer.

Correct Answer: C

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/APIReference/query-api-troubleshooting.html


Question 7:

An advertising company has a dynamic website with heavy traffic. The company wants to migrate the

website infrastructure to AWS to handle everything except website development.

Which solution BEST meets these requirements?

A. Use AWS VM Import to migrate a web server image to AWS Launch the image on a compute-optimized Amazon EC2 instanceLaunch.

B. Launch multiple Amazon Lighsall instance behind a load balancer. Set up the website on those instances.

C. Deploy the website code in an AWS Elastic Beanstalk environment. Use Auto Scaling to scale the numbers of instance

D. Use Amazon S3 to host the website. Use Amazon CloudFornt to deliver the content at scale.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

You are writing to a DynamoDB table and receive the following exception:” ProvisionedThroughputExceededException”. though according to your Cloudwatch metrics for the table, you are not exceeding your provisioned throughput.

What could be an for this?

A. You haven\’t provisioned enough DynamoDB storage instances

B. You\’re exceeding your capacity on a particular Range Key

C. You\’re exceeding your capacity on a particular Hash Key

D. You\’re exceeding your capacity on a particular Sort Key

E. You haven\’t configured DynamoDB Auto Scaling triggers

Correct Answer: C

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/amazondynamodb/latest/developerguide/HowItWorks.CoreCompon ents.html#HowItWorks.CoreComponents.PrimaryKey https://docs.aws.amazon.com/amazondynamodb/latest/developerguide/HowItWorks.Partitions.ht ml https://docs.aws.amazon.com/amazondynamodb/latest/developerguide/bp-partition-key- design.html


Question 9:

A Developer is creating a web application that requires authentication, but also needs to support guest access to provide users limited access without having to authenticate. What service can provide support for the application to allow guest access?

A. IAM temporary credentials using AWS STS.

B. Amazon Directory Service

C. Amazon Cognito with unauthenticated access enabled

D. IAM with SAML integration

Correct Answer: A

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/serverless-application-model/latest/developerguide/serverless-gettingstarted-hello-world.html https://docs.aws.amazon.com/serverless-application-model/latest/developerguide/sam-cli-commandreference-sam-deploy.html https://docs.aws.amazon.com/serverless-application-model/latest/developerguide/sam-cli-commandreference-sam-package.html


Question 10:

A company recently migrated its web, application and NoSQL database tiers to AWS. The company is using Auto Scaling to scale the web and application tiers. More than 95 percent of the Amazon DynamoDB requests are repeated read- requests.

How can the DynamoDB NoSQL tier be scaled up to cache these repeated requests?

A. Amazon EMR

B. Amazon DynamoDB Accelerator

C. Amazon SQS

D. Amazon CloudFront

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/dynamodb/dax/


Question 11:

Which of the following services are key/value stores? Choose 3 answers A. Amazon ElastiCache

B. Simple Notification Service

C. DynamoDB

D. Simple Workflow Service

E. Simple Storage Service

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 12:

What type of block cipher does Amazon S3 offer for server side encryption?

A. Triple DES

B. Advanced Encryption Standard

C. Blowfish

D. RC5

Correct Answer: B

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonS3/latest/dev/serv-side-encryption.html


Question 13:

A company has an application that logs all information to Amazon S3. Whenever there is a new log file, an AWS Lambda function is invoked to process the log files. The code works, gathering all of the necessary information. However, when checking the Lambda function logs, duplicate entries with the same request ID are found.

What is causing the duplicate entries?

A. The S3 bucket name was specified incorrectly.

B. The Lambda function failed, and the Lambda service retired the invocation with a delay.

C. There was an S3 outage, which caused duplicate entries of the sale log file.

D. The application stopped intermittently and then resumed.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

A Development team wants to instrument their code to provide more detailed information to AWS X-Ray than simple outgoing and incoming requests. This will generate large amounts of data, so the Development team wants to implement indexing so they can filter the data.

What should the Development team do to achieve this?

A. Add annotations to the segment document and the code

B. Add metadata to the segment document and the code

C. Configure the necessary X-Ray environment variables

D. Install required plugins for the appropriate AWS SDK

Correct Answer: A

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/xray/latest/devguide/xray-sdk-python-segment.html

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/xray/latest/devguide/xray-concepts.html#xray-concepts-annotations


Question 15:

A Developer is going to deploy an AWS Lambda function that requires significant CPU utilization. Which approach will MINIMIZE the average runtime of the function?

A. Deploy the function into multiple AWS Regions

B. Deploy the function into multiple Availability Zones

C. Deploy the function using Lambda layers

D. Deploy the function with its memory allocation set to the maximum amount

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

Scenario: Global Mobile 1

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question

Global Mobile is a mobile telecommunications company formed through a series of mergers and acquisitions. They are yet to fully integrate the customer service systems for the most recent acquisitions, and as result, customer service has been a major concern for the Chief Technology Officer.

Results for the last two quarters have shown that Average Revenue Per User (ARPU) and the customer retention (Churn) rate have fallen below the industry average. The Corporate Marketing group has published some new findings about customer satisfaction. The customers appear to be switching to Air Light, a competitor, because of superior customer service. Global Mobile actually has better coverage in nearly all markets than Air Light, and good roaming agreements that keep rates low for business travelers. But, customer satisfaction has remained low.

The Business Strategy group and the Enterprise Architecture group have conducted a high-level project to develop the enterprise-wide strategic plan. They have developed a business scenario which contains a good conceptual model of what needs to be done, and also identifies the key requirements. This was used in preparing the proposal presented to the Executive Council and the Corporate Board.

The planning for the program has been underway for several months. Global Mobile has selected TOGAF 9 as the basis for its Enterprise Architecture.

The Corporate Board has approved funding for a multi-million Euro conversion to transition to a packaged Customer Service System. It is anticipated that the overall program will take five years to complete, but there are some tactical projects that can commence immediately to address the situation. The Corporate Board has placed one additional major constraint on the program. In addition to achieving the business outcomes directly related to improving overall customer service within each business unit, the Corporate Board expects the Target Architecture to produce an additional saving of at least 30% over current operating costs through energy efficiency initiatives, virtualization of servers and workstations, and expanded telecommuting and desk-sharing. This Green initiative is intended to become a model for future investments at all company facilities worldwide.

Refer to Global Mobile scenario

You have been engaged as a consultant to advise the Chief Architect on the best ways to approach to the implementation planning activities for this significant business transformation.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer? (Is this the right answers to choose?)

A. You recommend using conventional implementation planning techniques. The horizontal scope of the Green initiative would make the Capability-Based Planning approach used in the organization\’s TOGAF-based Enterprise Architecture framework difficult to manage and govern. This approach to planning was better applied within the vertical scope of a business unit.

B. You recommend that the implementation planning activities be conducted using Capability-Based Planning. This is appropriate because the Green initiative is an enterprise-wide plan with a horizontal scope. Its metrics are aggregated at the enterprise level. It is crucial to gain business unit support and cooperation to achieve the broader business outcomes which will benefit all.

C. The Capability-Based Planning approach used in the organization\’s TOGAF-based Enterprise Architecture framework is focused on business outcomes. The Green initiative is an infrastructure program that is technical in nature; therefore, it would not be appropriate to use the Capability-Based Planning approach. Instead, the Global Mobile systems development lifecycle approach should be utilized to develop the Solution Architecture.

D. You recommend using conventional implementation planning techniques. The Capability-Based Planning approach is normally only used in public sector, defense-related programs. This approach is not appropriate for a private sector company.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Scenario: AGEX Inc.

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question

AGEX is a large, global commodities trading company which has been growing rapidly through a series of acquisitions.

Each new business is performing well in its markets. However, the lack of integration between headquarters and the business units has increasingly caused problems in the handling of customer and financial information. The inability to share information across businesses has resulted in lost opportunities to “leverage the synergies” that had been intended when the businesses were acquired. At present, each business unit maintains its own applications. Despite an earlier initiative to install a common application to manage customer, products, supplier, and inventory information, each business unit has different ways of defining each of these core elements and has customized the common application to the point where the ability to exchange information is difficult, costly, and error-prone.

As a result, AGEX has begun implementing a single Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system to consolidate information from several applications that exist across the lines of business. The Corporate Board is concerned that the new ERP system must be able to manage and safeguard customer information in a manner that meets or exceeds the legal requirements of the countries in which the company operates. This will be an increasingly important capability as the company expands its online services offered to clients and trading partners.

The CIO has formed an Enterprise Architecture department, and one of the primary goals in its charter is to coordinate efforts between the ERP implementation team and the business unit personnel who will be involved in the migration process. The CIO has also formed a cross-functional Architecture Review Board to oversee and govern the architecture.

After reviewing the available alternatives, and based on recommendations from the ERP vendor, AGEX has selected TOGAF 9 as the basis for its Enterprise Architecture program.

The CIO has endorsed this choice with the full support of top management.

Refer to the AGEX Inc. Scenario

You are serving as the Chief Architect.

You have been asked to recommend the approach to take in the Preliminary Phase to ensure that the Corporate Board\’s concern is addressed.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. You evaluate the implications of the Board\’s concern in terms of regulatory and security policy requirements. You then update the AGEX security policy to reflect the concern, ensuring that this policy is communicated across the organization. You allocate a security architecture team to ensure that security considerations are included in ongoing architecture planning. You then assess the security implications and agreements within the AGEX businesses and their suppliers.

B. You evaluate the implications of the Board\’s concern in terms of regulatory requirements and their impact on business goals and objectives. Based on this understanding, you then issue a Request for Architecture Work to commence an architecture development project to develop a solution that will address the Board\’s concern. You allocate a security architect to oversee the implementation of the solution in the ERP system that is being developed.

C. You start by clarifying the intent that the Board has for raising this concern. This enables you to understand the implications of the concern in terms of regulatory requirements and the potential impact on current business goals and objectives. You propose that a security architect or security architecture team be allocated to develop comprehensive security architecture.

D. You evaluate the implications of the Board\’s concern by examining the potential impacts on business goals and objectives. Based on your understanding, you then update the current AGEX security policy to include an emphasis on the Board\’s concern. In addition, you allocate a security architect to ensure that security considerations are included in the architecture planning for all domains.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Scenario: St. Croix Consulting

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question

St. Croix Consulting started as an accounting and financial services company. It has expanded over the years and is now a leading North American IT and Business Services provider.

With numerous practice areas and a multitude of diverse engagements underway at any given time, overall engagement management has become challenging. The company does not want to risk its outstanding reputation or its international certifications and CMM ratings. Senior partners must become team players, working to support the broader needs of the company and its shareholders.

The Enterprise Architecture team has been working to create St. Croixs Enterprise Architecture framework to address these issues. The team has defined a preliminary framework and held workshops with key stakeholders to define a set of principles to govern the architecture work. They have completed an Architecture Vision at a strategic level and laid out Architecture Definitions for the four domains. They have set out an ambitious vision of the future of the company over a five-year period.

An Architecture Review Board has been formed comprised of IT staff executives and executives from the major practice areas.

The Enterprise Architecture framework is based on TOGAF 9.

The Chief Executive Officer and Chief Information Officer have co-sponsored the creation of the Enterprise Architecture program.

Refer to the St Croix Consulting Scenario:

You have been assigned to the role of Chief Enterprise Architect.

As the EA team prepares to formulate an Implementation plan, they have been asked by the CIO to assess the risks associated with the proposed architecture. He has received concerns from senior management that the proposed architecture may be too ambitious and they are not sure it can produce sufficient value to warrant the attendant risks.

You have been asked to recommend an approach to satisfy these concerns.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. An interoperability analysis should be applied to evaluate any potential issues across the Solution Architecture. Once all of the concerns have been resolved, the EA team should finalize the Architecture Implementation Roadmap and the Migration Plan.

B. The EA team should gather information about potential solutions from the appropriate sources. Once the Solution Architecture has been assembled, it should be analyzed using a state evolution table to determine the Transition Architectures.

C. Prior to preparing the Implementation plan, the EA team should create a consolidated gap analysis to understand the transformations that are required to achieve the proposed Target Architecture. The EA team should gather information about potential solutions from the appropriate sources. Once the Solution Architecture has been assembled, it should be analyzed using a state evolution table to determine the Transition Architectures. An interoperability analysis should be applied to evaluate any potential issues across the Solution Architecture.

D. Prior to preparing the Implementation plan, there are several techniques that should be applied to assess the risks and value of the proposed transformation. In particular, the EA team should pay attention to the Business Transformation Readiness Assessment and the Business Value Assessment.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Scenario: Zephyr Enterprises

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question

Zephyr Enterprises specializes in the development of wind turbine blades for use in large-scale commercial wind energy production systems. Zephyr has manufacturing facilities located in Palm Springs, California, Omaha, Nebraska, and Winnipeg, Ontario. Each of these plants supplies a different manufacturer that builds and sells complete systems. The turbine blades are custom engineered to meet each manufacturers design specifications.

Until recently, most turbine blades were fabricated manually using molded fiber-reinforced plastics. However, recent improvements in composite materials, coupled with enhanced automated methods for precision application of materials during the molding process, have led to significant reduction in weight, increase in strength, and greatly improved blade longevity. Zephyr has pioneered the development of a proprietary automated process for continuous extrusion of the turbine blades. Patents have been filed to protect the process, but certain trade secrets must be closely guarded.

Zephyr has a mature Enterprise Architecture organization that is supported by a cross-functional Architecture Review Board. The Chief Information Officer and the Chief Operating Officer co-sponsor the Enterprise Architecture program.

Zephyr has used TOGAF and its Architecture Development Method (ADM) to develop its automated manufacturing processes and systems that are used to design, manufacture, and test the blade assemblies. They have recently updated to

TOGAF 9 and have adapted the Zephyr Enterprise Architecture to closely follow the TOGAF 9 framework. All of Zephyrs IT architects have been trained and certified on TOGAF 9.Recently, an architecture project was completed that defined

a standard approach for controlling the Automated Test System that is used at each plant to perform final quality assurance tests on each completed blade assembly. The Manufacturing Architecture Board approved the plan for immediate

implementation at each plant.

An Architecture Contract was developed that detailed the work needed to implement and deploy the new Automated Test System controller. The Chief Engineer, sponsor of the activity, has expressed concern that a uniform process be

employed at each site to ensure consistency.

Refer to the Zephyr Enterprises Scenario:

You have been assigned by the Lead Architect for the Automated Test System controller project to conduct Compliance Assessments at each manufacturing plant.

During the course of the assessment at the Omaha plant, you discover that the Distributed Data Acquisition System they have purchased uses a proprietary Remote Procedure Call (RPC) that utilizes kernel mode threads instead of the user

mode threads that are specified in the Architecture Definition Document. In all other respects, the system meets the requirements stated in the Architecture Definition Document and seems to perform correctly.

You have been asked to describe the compliance of this system for the final report.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. You observe that all of the features in the Architecture Definition Document have been implemented in accordance with the specification, except for the RPC mechanism. Your recommendation is that the system be described as conformant.

B. You observe that the system has many features in common with the Architecture Definition Document, and those features have been implemented in accordance with the specification. However, you note that the RPC mechanism has been implemented using features that are not covered by the specification. Your recommendation is that the system be described as consistent.

C. You observe that the implementation of the RPC mechanism has no features in common with the Architecture Definition Document, therefore the question of its conformance should not be considered. Your recommendation is that the system be described as consistent.

D. You observe that the system meets most of the requirements stated in the Architecture Definition Document and appears to work correctly. However, you note that the RPC mechanism has not been implemented according to the specification. Your recommendation is that the system be described as non-conformant.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Scenario: Rollins Manufacturing

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question

Rollins Manufacturing is a major supplier in the automotive industry, headquartered in Cleveland, Ohio with manufacturing plants in Chicago, Sao Paulo, Stuttgart, Yokohama, and Seoul. Each of these plants has been operating its own Manufacturing Requirements Planning (MRPII) system, production scheduling, and custom developed applications that drive the automated production equipment at each plant.

Rollins is implementing lean manufacturing principles to minimize waste and improve the efficiency of all of its production operations. During a recent exercise held for internal quality improvement, it was determined that a significant reduction in process waste could be achieved by replacing the current MRPII and scheduling systems with a common Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system located in the Cleveland data center. This central system would provide support to each of the plants replacing the functionality in the existing systems. It would also eliminate the need for full data centers at each of the plant facilities. A reduced number of IT staff could support the remaining applications. In some cases, a third-party contractor could provide those staff.

The Rollins Enterprise Architecture department has been operating for several years and has mature, well-developed architecture governance and development processes that are strongly based on TOGAF 9.At a recent meeting, the Architecture Review Board approved a Request for Architecture Work from the Chief Engineer of Global Manufacturing Operations who is the project sponsor. The request covered the initial architectural investigations and the development of a comprehensive architecture to plan the transformation.

The Common ERP Deployment architecture project team has now been formed, and the project team has been asked to develop an Architecture Vision that will achieve the desired outcomes and benefits. Some of the plant managers have expressed concern about the security and reliability of driving their MRPII and production scheduling from a central system located in Cleveland. The Chief Engineer wants to know how these concerns can be addressed.

Refer to the Rollins Manufacturing Scenario

You are serving as the Lead Enterprise Architect of the newly-formed Common ERP Deployment architecture project team.

As the Common ERP Deployment architecture project team assembles for its initial meeting, many of the participants have voiced concerns about the sweeping scope of the initiative. Others are confident that they know a solution that will work. During the meeting, a number of alternative recommendations for how to proceed are put forward by members of the team. You have been asked to select the most appropriate recommendation to ensure that the team evaluates different approaches to the problem and clarifies the requirements for the architecture.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. The team should hold a series of interviews at each of the manufacturing plants using the business scenario technique. This will then enable them to identify and document the characteristics of the architecture from the business requirements.

B. The team should exercise due diligence and carefully research vendor literature and conduct a series of briefings with vendors that are on the current approved supplier list. Based on the findings from the research, the team should define a preliminary target Architecture Vision. The team should then use that model to build consensus among the key stakeholders.

C. The team should create Baseline and Target Architectures for each of the manufacturing plants. A gap analysis between the architectures will then validate the approach, and determine the Transition Architecture needed to achieve the target state.

D. The team should conduct a pilot project that will enable vendors on the short list to demonstrate potential solutions that will access the concerns of the stakeholders. Based on the findings of that pilot project, a complete set of requirements can be developed that will arrive the evolution of the architecture.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Scenario: Vittronics Ltd.

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question

Vittronics Ltd. is a leading medical device manufacturer in the highly competitive market for Migraine Headache Pain Management (MHPM) devices. These tiny wireless devices are implanted in the brain and can deliver a precise electric shock when the wearable Pain Control Unit (PCU) detects an increase in stress induced by the onset of a migraine headache.

This technology will be a breakthrough in the treatment of this condition, and several competitors are striving to be the first to introduce a product into the market. However, all of them must demonstrate the effectiveness and safety of their products in a set of clinical trials that will satisfy the regulatory requirements of the countries in the target markets.

The Enterprise Architecture group at Vittronics has been engaged in an architecture development project to create a Secure Private Immersive Collaborative Environment (SPICE) that will allow researchers at its product development laboratories worldwide to share information about their independent clinical trials.

The Vittronics Enterprise Architecture group is a mature organization that has been utilizing TOGAF for several years. They have recently upgraded to TOGAF 9. The Vittronics Architecture Development Method (VADM) is strictly based on the TOGAF 9 Architecture Development Method (ADM) with extensions required to support current good manufacturing practices and good laboratory practices in their target markets.

The SPICE project team has now completed the Business, Information Systems, and Technology Architecture phases and has produced a complete set of deliverables for each phase. Due to the highly sensitive nature of the information that is managed in SPICE, special care was taken to ensure that each architecture domain included an examination of the security and privacy issues that are relevant for each domain. A corresponding SPICE Security Architecture has been defined.

The Executive Vice President for Clinical Research is the sponsor of the Enterprise Architecture activity. He has stated that the changes to the SPICE architecture will need to be rolled out on a geographic basis that will minimize disruptions to ongoing clinical trials. The work will need to be done in stages and rolled out in geographical regions.

Refer to the Vittronics Ltd Scenario

You are serving as the Lead Architect for the SPICE project team.

You have been asked to recommend the approach to identify the work packages that will be included in the Transition Architecture(s).

Based en TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. Create an Implementation Factor Assessment and Deduction Matrix and a Consolidated Gaps, Solutions and Dependencies Matrix. For each gap, identify a proposed solution and classify it as new development, purchased solution, or based on an existing product. Group similar solutions together to form work packages. Identify dependencies between work packages factoring in the clinical trial schedules. Regroup the packages into a set of Capability Increments scheduled into a series of Transition Architectures and documented in an Architecture Definition Increments Table.

B. Determine the set of Solution Building Blocks required by identifying which Solution Building Blocks need to be developed and which need to be procured. Eliminate any duplicate building blocks. Group the remaining Solution Building Blocks together to create the work packages using a CRLO matrix. Rank the work packages in terms of cost and select the most cost-effective options for inclusion in a series of Transition Architectures. Schedule the roll out of the work packages to be sequential across the geographic regions.

C. Use a Consolidated Gaps, Solutions and Dependencies Matrix as a planning tool. For each gap classify whether the solution is either a new development, purchased solution, or based on an existing product. Group the similar solutions together to define the work packages. Regroup the work packages into a set of Capability Increments to transition to the Target Architecture taking into account the schedule for clinical trials.

D. Group the Solution Building Blocks from a Consolidated Gaps, Solutions and Dependencies Matrix into a set of work packages. Using the matrix as a planning tool, regroup the work packages to account for dependencies. Sequence the work packages into the Capability Increments needed to achieve the Target Architecture. Schedule the rollout one region at a time. Document the progression of the enterprise architecture using an Enterprise Architecture State Evolution table.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Worldwide Mobile is a mobile telecommunications company formed through a series of mergers and acquisitions. They are yet to fully integrate the customer service systems for the most recent acquisitions, and as result, customer service has been a major concern for the Chief Technology Officer.

Results for the last two quarters have shown that Average Revenue Per User (ARPU) and the customer retention (Churn) rate have fallen below the industry average. The Corporate Marketing group has published some new finding about customer satisfaction. The customers appear to be switching to Air Light, a competitor, because of superior customer service. WorldwideMobile actually has better coverage in nearly all markets than Air Light, and good roaming agreement that keep rates low for business travellers. But customer satisfaction has remained low. The Business Strategy group and the Enterprise Architecture group have conducted a high-level project to develop the enterprise-wide strategic plan. They have developed a business scenario which contains a good conceptual model of what needs to be done and also identifies the key requirements. This was used in preparing the proposal presented to the Executive Council and the Corporate Board. The planning for the program has been underway for several months. WorldwideMobile has selected TOGAF 9 as the basis for its Enterprise Architecture. The Corporate Board has approved funding for a multi-million Euro conversion to transition to a packaged Customer Service System. It is anticipated that the overall program will take five years to complete, but there are some tactical projects that can commence immediately to address the situation. The Executive Council has stated that the program should define specific initiatives to enable each regional business units to create an implementation of the Customer Service System. The implementation must meet the needs of the business unit and still provide the information needed to enable major improvements to the customer.

Refer to WorldwideMobile-2 Scenario

You are serving as the Lead Architect for the Performance and Integrity project of the Customer Service System program.

The project has been chartered to address the architecture(s) required to support the Customer Service System from an infrastructure perspective. At present time, the project team is conducting an architecture development project that is

focused on the customer self service capability, which was defined as part of the earlier strategic planning activities. This capability will enable customers to access their accounts, pay bills, request account reviews, and provision services

from any web-enabled device.

The project team has gathered information about the self-service capability, developed a business scenario, and used the results to define an Architecture Vision for achieving the capability.

You have been asked to recommend the course of action to complete the project.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is best answer?

A. In the remaining architecture definition phases, the project team should map out the capability in the Technology domain. In the Phases E and F, the capability should be broken down into a set of Solution Building Blocks that define the Target Architecture. Where possible, the Solution Building Blocks should be drawn from the Architecture Repository. The completed Architecture Definition Document and the Implementation and Migration Plan will be submitted for approval. Upon approval, the architecture team will conduct Compliance Assessments to ensure that the Target Architecture is properly implemented.

B. In the remaining architecture definition phases, the project team should map out the capability across the Business, Information System and Technology domains. In the Phases E and F, the capability should be broken down into a set of increments that are sequenced into Transition Architectures that will lead to the realization of the Target Architecture. The resulting Solution Building Blocks will then provide the basis for the capability increment solutions. The complete Architecture Definition Document and the Implementation and Migration Plan will be submitted for approval. Upon approval, the architecture team will oversee the implementation process through monitoring Architecture Contracts and by conduction Compliance Assessments.

C. In the remaining architecture definition phases, the project team should map out the capability across the Business, Information System and Technology domains. In the Phases E and F, the capability should be broken down into a set of increments that defines the Target Architecture. The Solution Building Blocks will provide the basis for the capability increment solutions. The complete Architecture Definition Document and the Implementation and Migration Plan will be submitted for approval. Upon approval, the architecture team will oversee the implementation process through monitoring Architecture Contracts and by conducting Compliance Assessments.

D. The remaining architecture definition work should be focused on mapping out the technology and infrastructure capability in the Technology domain. In Phases E and F, the capability should be broken down into a set of Solution Building Blocks that will be implemented to realize the Target Architecture. The Solution Building Blocks will provide the basis for the completed Architecture Definition Document that will be submitted for approval. Upon approval, the implementation team will conduct Compliance Assessments to ensure that the self-service capability is compliant with the overall Enterprise Architecture.

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Scenario: AGEX Inc.

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question

AGEX is a large, global commodities trading company which has been growing rapidly through a series of acquisitions.

Each new business is performing well in its markets. However, the lack of integration between headquarters and the business units has increasingly caused problems in the handling of customer and financial information. The inability to share information across businesses has resulted in lost opportunities to “leverage the synergies” that had been intended when the businesses were acquired. At present, each business unit maintains its own applications. Despite an earlier initiative to install a common application to manage customer, products, supplier, and inventory information, each business unit has different ways of defining each of these core elements and has customized the common application to the point where the ability to exchange information is difficult, costly, and error-prone.

As a result, AGEX has begun implementing a single Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system to consolidate information from several applications that exist across the lines of business. The Corporate Board is concerned that the new ERP system must be able to manage and safeguard customer information in a manner that meets or exceeds the legal requirements of the countries in which the company operates. This will be an increasingly important capability as the company expands its online services offered to clients and trading partners.

The CIO has formed an Enterprise Architecture department, and one of the primary goals in its charter is to coordinate efforts between the ERP implementation team and the business unit personnel who will be involved in the migration process. The CIO has also formed a cross-functional Architecture Review Board to oversee and govern the architecture.

After reviewing the available alternatives, and based on recommendations from the ERP vendor, AGEX has selected TOGAF 9 as the basis for its Enterprise Architecture program.

The CIO has endorsed this choice with the full support of top management.

Refer to the AGEX Inc. Scenario

You are serving as the Chief Architect.

As part of the process for establishing the Enterprise Architecture department, you have decided to create a set of principles to guide the activities.

You have been asked to recommend the best approach for this work.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. You define a set of principles that support the preferred best practices embodied in the Enterprise Architecture department charter. You publish the principles on the corporate intranet to ensure widespread acceptance and compliance. You then schedule regular periodic Compliance Assessments with individual business units to check that they have made satisfactory progress toward meeting the objectives and conditions embodied in the principles.

B. You gather information from credible industry sources in the commodities business. Based on that, you assess current trends and apply that to defining a set of principles that embody best practices. You select architecture principles that do not conflict with each other and that should be stable. You ensure that all the principles are realistic and avoid including principles that are obvious.

C. You examine the mission statements for AGEX and each of its businesses, together with the corporate value statements. Based on that, you define a set of principles and review with the CIO. When developing the principles you ensure that they actively promote the alignment of IT with the business strategies and initiatives of AGEX. You then seek the endorsement of the CIO and senior management.

D. You examine the mission statements for AGEX and each of its businesses, together with the corporate value statements. Based on that, you work with the Architecture Review Board to define the principles. When developing the principles you ensure that they actively promote the alignment of IT with the AGEX business strategies. You then run a series of reviews with all the relevant stakeholders, including senior management, ensuring their support.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Scenario:

Please read this scenario prior to answering the Question

You are serving as the Lead Architect for the enterprise architecture team at the prime contractor for the Dreadnought Unmanned Aircraft System program.

Over the course of this contract, the company has grown rapidly by acquisition and has inherited numerous different procurement processes and related IT systems. The decision has been made to consolidate and reduce redundant

procurement processes and systems. The CEO has announced that the company will seek to leverage higher volume discounts and lower related IT support costs by instituting a preferred supplier program.

TOGAF 9 Is used for internal Enterprise Architecture activities, with an iterative approach for executing Architecture Development Method (ADM) projects.

At present, there are no particularly useful architectural assets related to this initiative, so all assets need to be acquired and customized or created from scratch. The company prefers to implement commercial off the shelf package

applications with little customization. The CIO, who is the project sponsor, has stated that she is not concerned about preserving existing processes or systems.

The architect-re development project has put in place Its Architecture Capability for this project and has started a number of iteration cycles to develop the Architecture. Some tasks to address concerns related to the Business Architecture

have been completed. The next immediate task is to address the Information Systems Architectures.

The Information Systems Architectures must address stakeholder concerns such as:

1.

Which procurement-related business processes are supported by zero, one, or many existing applications?

2.

What non-procurement applications will need to be integrated with any new procurement applications?

3.

What data will need to be shared?

Refer to the Scenario

[Note: You may need to refer to TOGAF 9 Chapter 35 in order to answer this question.]

You have been asked to identify the most appropriate catalogs, matrices, and diagrams for this situation.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. in the early iterations of Architecture development, you would describe the Baseline Application Architecture with a System/Function matrix, and describe the Baseline Data Architecture using a Data Entity/Data Component catalog. In the later Iterations of the Architecture Definition, you would describe the Target Application Architecture using Application Communication diagrams and an Application Interaction matrix, and describe the Target Data Architecture with a System/Data matrix.

B. In the early iterations of Architecture development, you would describe the Target Application Architecture with Application Communication diagrams and an Application Interaction matrix, and describe the Target Data Architecture with a System/Data matrix. In the later iterations of Architecture development, you would describe the Baseline Application Architecture with an Application and User Location diagram and a System/Function matrix, and describe the Baseline Data Architecture with a Data Entity/Data Component catalog.

C. In the early iterations of Architecture development, you would describe the Target Application Architecture with Application Communication diagrams and an Application Interaction matrix, and describe the Target Data Architecture with a Data Entity/Business Function matrix and a System/Data matrix. In the later iterations of Architecture development, you would describe the Baseline Application Architecture with a System/Function matrix, and describe the Baseline Data Architecture with a Data Entity/Data Component catalog.

D. In the early iterations of Architecture development, you would describe the Baseline Application Architecture with a Technology Portfolio catalog, and describe the Baseline Data Architecture with a Data diagram. In the later iterations of Architecture development, you would describe the Target Application Architecture with a System/Technology matrix, and describe the Target Data Architecture with a Data Dissemination diagram.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Scenario:

Please read this scenario prior to answering the Question

You have been appointed as a consultant to the Lead Enterprise Architect of an international agricultural company that exports bulbs, flowers and seeds worldwide. The company has its headquarters in the Netherlands, and has sales and

distribution centers in over 30 countries worldwide. Several of these centers include administrative, manufacturing, and research facilities.

To achieve full integration of their research capabilities with their development centers located in various climate zones, the company wants to develop strong self-directed teams in each location. It also wants to define new business models

that are profitable while reducing their impact on the environment. The management team is deeply committed to ensuring that the company is a world leader in socially responsible seed development with a business strategy that focuses on

profitability through environmentally friendly operating processes.

The international operations of the company are subject to legal and regulatory requirements for each country where they operate. The production of genetically modified seeds has governmental controls that are strictly enforced and

compliance is critical. Recently a competitor was heavily fined for violating the regulations in a country where it was developing pest-resistant seeds.

The Governing Board is concerned about the risks posed in this complex global environment, and as a result has approved the expenditure of resources to establish an Enterprise Architecture program. They have requested to be informed

about the status of projects that could impact regulatory compliance. They also want to enable the corporate legal staff and auditors to analyze proposed architectures to ensure that they are within the legal guidelines for a given location. In

addition, the research organization should be able to see that the architecture is appropriate for its needs.

TOGAF 9 has been mandated as the framework for the development and evolution of the Enterprise Architecture practice. The Preliminary Phase has been completed to establish the enterprise architecture capability for this project.

Refer to the Scenario

You have been asked to recommend an approach that would enable the development of an architecture that addresses the needs of the Governing Board, legal staff, auditors and the research organization.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. You recommend that each project architecture activity is developed using a consistent modeling approach that is uniform across all architecture projects. Each architecture should be defined based on this fixed set of models so that all concerned parties can examine the models to ensure that their issues and concerns have been addressed.

B. You recommend that a special report be created for those groups that have sufficient power and level of interest. This report should summarize the key features of the architecture with respect to the particular location. Each of these reports should reflect the stakeholders1 requirements.

C. You recommend that a set of models be created for each project architecture that can be used to ensure that the system will be compliant with the local regulations. Stakeholders should then view the models to verify that their concerns have been properly addressed.

D. You recommend that a stakeholder map be developed. This will allow the architects to define groups of stakeholders that share common concerns. A set of views should be defined to address the concerns for each group of stakeholders. Architecture models should then be created for each view to address the stakeholders\’ concerns.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Scenario:

Please read this scenario prior to answering the Question

You are serving as the Chief Architect for a large, global commodities trading company which has been growing rapidly through a series of acquisitions.

Each business is performing well in its markets. However, the lack of integration between headquarters and the business units has increasingly caused problems in the handling of customer and financial information. The inability to share

information across businesses has resulted in lost opportunities to “leverage the synergies” that had been intended when the businesses were acquired. At present, each business unit maintains its own applications. Despite an earlier initiative

to install a common application to manage customer, products, supplier, and inventory information, each business unit has different ways of defining each of these core elements and has customized the common application to the point where

the ability to exchange information is difficult, costly, and error-prone.

As a result, the company has made the decision to introduce a single enterprise-wide application to consolidate information from several applications that exist across the lines of business. The application will be used by all business units and

accessed by suppliers through well defined interfaces.

The Corporate Board is concerned that the new application must be able to manage and safeguard confidential customer information in a secure manner that meets or exceeds the legal requirements of the countries in which the company

operates. This will be an increasingly important capability as the company expands its online services in cooperation with its trading partners.

The CIO has formed an Enterprise Architecture department, and one of the primary goals in its charter is to coordinate efforts between the implementation team and the business unit personnel who will be involved in the migration process.

The CIO has also formed a cross-functional Architecture Board to oversee and govern the architecture. The company has an existing team of security architects.

TOGAF 9 has been selected for use for the Enterprise Architecture program. The CIO has endorsed this choice with the full support of top management.

Refer to the Scenario

In the Preliminary Phase you need to define suitable policies and ensure that the company has the appropriate capability to address the concerns of the Corporate Board.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. You start by clarifying the intent that the Board has for raising these concerns. This enables you to understand the implications of the concern in terms of regulatory requirements and the potential impact on current business goals and objectives. You propose that a security architect or security architecture team be allocated to develop a comprehensive security architecture and that this be considered an additional domain architecture.

B. You evaluate the implications of the Board\’s concerns by examining the security and regulatory impacts on business goals, business drivers and objectives. Based on your understanding, you then update the current security policy to include an emphasis on the concerns. You define architecture principles to form constraints on the architecture work to be undertaken in the project. You then allocate a security architect to ensure that security considerations are included in the architecture planning for all domains.

C. You identify and document the security and regulatory requirements for the application and the data being collected. You ensure that written policies are put in place to address the requirements, and that they are communicated across the organization, together with appropriate training for key employees. You identify constraints on the architecture and communicate those to the architecture team. You establish an agreement with the security architects defining their role

within the ongoing architecture project.

D. You evaluate the implications of the concerns raised by the Corporate Board in terms of regulatory requirements and their impact on business goals and objectives. Based on this understanding, you then issue a Request for Architecture Work to commence an architecture development project to develop a solution that will address the concerns. You allocate a security architect to oversee the implementation of the new application that is being developed.

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Scenario:

Please read this scenario prior to answering the Question

Your role is that of Lead Enterprise Architect within a vacation property management firm that has been growing through acquisition. The firm manages over 200 resort properties across North America. Many of the resort properties use the

same internal IT systems that they used before they were acquired. Until recently, the only requirement that has been placed on each property is that they use a standard financial reporting system to report their financial results to the

headquarters on a weekly basis.

The CEO has stated his concerns about the inefficiencies of the current approach and identified the need to change. He has defined a new strategic vision that will enhance the business by standardizing its operations across the network to

provide consolidated financial, human resources, logistics, sales and marketing, and yield management. He has also stated that he expects results by the end of the current fiscal year.

These changes will provide the company with improved utilization of its capacity and more efficient operations. The addition of a corporate-wide data warehouse will provide analytics that will enable the marketing group to improve its ability to

target advertising into key markets to improve yields.

The firm has a mature enterprise architecture practice and uses TOGAF 9 as the method and guiding framework. The CIO is the sponsor of the activity. In planning this change, the Chief Architect engaged the services of a well-known

consulting firm that specializes in business strategy. An initial study has been conducted to identify the strategic changes needed to implement the CEO\’s vision. This recently completed with approval of a strategic architecture encompassing

the entire firm, including detailed requirements and recommendations.

Based on the recommendations from the initial study, the firm has taken the decision to adopt a packaged suite of integrated applications that is tailored to the needs of the hospitality industry.

Refer to the scenario

You have been asked by the Chief Architect to justify the best approach for architecture development to realize the CEO\’s vision.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. You recommend that the target architecture is defined first, followed by transition planning. This is because the vision is well understood and the strategic architecture agreed. This will ensure that the current problems and inefficiencies of the baseline architecture are not carried forward, and that the proposed solution addresses the requirements identified in the initial study.

B. You recommend that the team focus on architecture definition, with a specific emphasis on understanding the strategic change parameters of the business strategy. Once understood, the team will be in the best position to identify the requirements, drivers, issues, and constraints for this engagement. You would ensure that the target architecture addresses non-functional requirements so as to ensure the target architecture is robust and secure.

C. You recommend that the team focus on defining the target architecture by going through the architecture definition phases (B-D). This is because the initial study identified the need to change. This will ensure that the change can be defined in a structured manner and address the requirements needed to realize the vision.

D. You recommend that this engagement define the baseline Technology Architecture first in order to assess the current infrastructure capacity and capability. Then the focus should be on transition planning and architecture deployment. This will identify retirements to ensure that the projects are sequenced in an optimal fashion so as to realize the vision.

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Scenario:

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question

You are serving as the Lead Enterprise Architect at a major supplier in the automotive industry. The company is headquartered in Cleveland, Ohio with manufacturing plants across the United States, Brazil, Germany, Japan and South Korea.

Each of these plants has been operating its own planning and production scheduling systems, as well as custom developed applications that drive the automated production equipment at each plant.

The company is implementing lean manufacturing principles to minimize waste and improve the efficiency of all of its production operations. During a recent exercise held for internal quality improvement, it was determined that a significant

reduction in process waste could be achieved by replacing the current planning and scheduling systems with a common Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system located in the Cleveland data center. This central system would provide

support to each of the plants replacing the functionality in the existing systems. It would also eliminate the need for full data centers at each of the plant facilities. A reduced number of IT staff could support the remaining applications. In some

cases, a third-party contractor could provide those staff.

The Enterprise Architecture department has been operating for several years and has mature, well-developed architecture governance and development processes that are strongly based on TOGAF 9.

At a recent meeting, the Architecture Board approved a Request for Architecture Work sponsored by the Chief Engineer of Global Manufacturing Operations. The request covered the initial architectural investigations and the development of a

comprehensive architecture to plan the transformation.

The Common ERP Deployment architecture project team has now been formed, and the project team has been asked to develop an Architecture Vision that will achieve the desired outcomes and benefits. Some of the plant managers have

expressed concern about the security and reliability of diving their planning and production scheduling from a remote centralized system. The Chief Engineer wants to know how these concerns can be addressed.

Refer to the Scenario

[Note: You should assume that the company has adopted the example set of principles that are listed and defined in TOGAF 9, Section 23.6.] One of the earliest initiatives in the Enterprise Architecture program was the definition of a set of

architecture principles. These now need to be updated to address the concerns raised.

You have been asked to select a set of principles most appropriate for guiding the team to define a robust solution.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. Common-use Applications, Control Technical Diversity, Ease of Use, Interoperability, Data is Shared, Data is Accessible, Data Security

B. Business Continuity, Common-use Applications, Maximize Benefit to the Enterprise, Data is Shared, Data is Accessible, Data Security

C. Technology Independence, Data Trustee, Information Management is Everybody\’s Business, IT Responsibility, Responsive Change Management

D. Service-orientation, Responsive Change Management, Business Continuity, Data is Accessible, Data Security

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Scenario:

Please read this scenario prior to answering the Question

You have been assigned the role of Lead Enterprise Architect for a manufacturing firm that specializes in musical instruments. The firm has been established for over 100 years, operating in North America for most of that time. In the last ten

years, the firm has expanded into European markets and will soon establish a market in Latin America. A future expansion into the Asia Pacific region is also planned.

The firm is organized into several business units that each focus on manufacturing particular families of instruments such as brass, woodwind, and percussion. Each business unit has acquired other producers to expand its manufacturing capacity. This has resulted in a complex environment with a high diversity of business and manufacturing systems. The Enterprise Architecture (EA) program within the firm has been functioning for several years. It has made significant progress in consolidating the technology portfolio and establishing key standards. The CIO and the COO are pint sponsors of the EA program. The EA program is mature, with an active Architecture Board and a well-defined architecture process and standard content templates based on the TOGAF 9 Architecture Content Framework. The EA process framework is well coordinated with the PMO, Systems Development, and Operations functions.

The firm has completed a strategic plan to reorganize its Sales and Marketing organization according to the four target geographic markets. One of the goals of this reorganization is to improve the ability of Marketing to collect more meaningful

market analytics that will enable each sector to better address market needs with effective marketing campaigns and global product presence.

A Request for Architecture Work to address the goals of the reorganization has been approved. As the architecture team commences its work, the CIO has expressed concerns about whether the firm will be able to adapt to the proposed

architecture and how to manage the associated risks.

Refer to the Scenario

You have been asked how to address the concerns of the CIO.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. In Phase B, the team should create a set of views that will enable them to identify the factors that will influence the successful introduction of the architecture into the organization. There should then be an assessment of each factor on a maturity scale that will allow the team to gauge the urgency, readiness, and degree of difficulty to fix. These factors can then be used to assess the initial risks associated with the proposed architecture.

B. In Phase A the team should analyze their risk by completing an Implementation Factor Assessment and Deduction Matrix to identify the particular risks associated with the implementation and deployment. The matrix should include a list of factors to be considered, their descriptions, and constraints that should be taken into account. These factors can then used to assess the initial risks associated with the proposed architecture.

C. In Phase A, the team should use the Business Transformation Readiness Assessment technique to identify the factors that will influence the successful introduction of the architecture into the organization. The assessment should include determining the readiness rating for each factor based on a maturity scale that will allow the team to gauge the urgency, readiness, and degree of difficulty to fix. These factors can then used to assess the initial risks associated with the proposed architecture.

D. In Phase A, the team should conduct a Business Scenario to identify the stakeholders\’ concerns and the resulting retirements. Once the retirements have been identified, they can be assessed in terms of their risks. The risks should be evaluated in terms of how they could be avoided, transferred, or mitigated. Any risks that cannot be resolved should be identified as residual risks and their disposition should be decided by the Architecture Board.

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Scenario:

Please read this scenario prior to answering the Question

You are the Lead Architect for a firm that manufactures ball bearings used in industrial equipment applications. They have manufacturing operations in several cities in the United States, Germany, and the United Kingdom. The firm has

traditionally allowed each manufacturing plant to drive its own production planning systems. Each plant has its own custom Materials Requirements Planning, Master Production Scheduling, Bill of Materials, and Shop Floor Control systems.

“Just In Time” manufacturing techniques are used to minimize wastes caused by excessive inventory and work in process. The increasingly competitive business environment has compelled the firm to improve its business capability to be

more responsive to the needs of industrial customers. To support this capability, the firm has decided to implement an Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) solution that will enable it to better coordinate its manufacturing capacity to match the

demands for its products across all plants. In addition, there are also new European regulations coming into force to which their manufacturing processes must conform in the next six months.

As part of the implementation process, the Enterprise Architecture (EA) department has begun to implement an architecture process based on TOGAF 9. The CIO is the sponsor of the activity. The Chief Architect has directed that the

program should include formal modeling using the Architecture Content Framework and the TOGAF Content Metamodel. This will enable support for the architecture tooling that the firm uses for its EA program.

The Chief Architect has stated that in order to model the complex manufacturing process it will be necessary to model processes that are event-driven. Also, in order to consolidate applications across several data centers it will be necessary

to model the location of IT assets. In particular, the end goal is to have the single ERP application running in a single data center.

Currently the project is in the Preliminary Phase, and the architects are tailoring the Architecture Development Method (ADM) and Architecture Content Framework to fit into the corporate environment.

Refer to the Scenario

You have been asked to recommend a response to the Chief Architect\’s request to tailor the TOGAF Content Metamodel.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. You recommend that the architecture team incorporate the Process Modeling and Infrastructure Consolidation extensions into their tailored Content Metamodel. As the environment is process-centric this will enable them to model the manufacturing processes and store information to support regulatory compliance. It also includes views useful for managing the consolidation of applications into a single data center.

B. You recommend that the architecture team incorporate the Process Modeling and Governance extensions into their tailored Content Metamodel. This is suitable as this is a significant IT change that will impact its operational models. This will ensure that they include specific entities and attributes that will allow them to model the event-driven nature of the manufacturing processes more precisely.

C. You recommend that the architecture team incorporates the Governance and Motivation Extensions into their tailored Content Metamodel. This would allow modeling of the target milestones they want to achieve with this consolidation of application to a single data center. These extensions will also enable demonstration of regulatory compliance for the manufacturing process.

D. You recommend that the architecture team incorporates the Data and Services Extensions into their tailored Content Metamodel. This would allow modeling of the location of IT assets and ensure regulatory compliance for the manufacturing process. It will also allow for identification of redundant duplication of capability which will be needed for a successful consolidation to a single data center.

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Which of the following is the most significant reason that domestic governments and international organizations seek to eliminate cartels?

A. The increased sales price reduces the amount of corporate tax revenues payable to the government.

B. True competition keeps prices as low as possible, thus increasing efficiency in the marketplace.

C. Small businesses cannot survive or grow without government protection.

D. The economic stability of developing countries depends on a global free market.

Correct Answer: B

A cartel is an organization of sellers (e.g., the oil cartel OPEC) who undertake joint action to maximize members\’ profits by controlling the supply, and therefore the price, of their product. Under the laws of many nations, such collusive conduct is illegal when engaged in by firms subject to those laws. The reason is that, as a result of the monopolistic and anticompetitive practices of cartels, supply is lower, prices are high, competition is restrained, and the relevant industry is less efficient. Accordingly, governmental and international organizations seek to protect consumers and the health of the domestic and global economy through anti-cartel efforts.


Question 2:

When a multinational firm decides to sell its products abroad, one of the risks the firm faces is that the government of the foreign market charges the firm with dumping. Dumping occurs when

A. The same product sells at different prices in different countries.

B. A firm charges less than the cost to make the product so as to enter or win a market.

C. Lower quality versions of the product are sold abroad so as to be affordable.

D. Transfer prices are set artificially high so as to minimize tax payments.

Correct Answer: B

Dumping is an unfair trade practice that violates international agreements. It occurs when a firmcharges a price (1) lower than that in its home market or (2) less than the cost to make the product. Dumping may be done to penetrate a market or as a result of export subsidies.


Question 3:

A global firm

A. Has achieved economies of scale in the firm\’s domestic market.

B. Plans, operates, and coordinates business globally.

C. Relies on indirect export.

D. Tends to rely more on one product market.

Correct Answer: B

According to Kotler, “Global firms plan, operate, and coordinate their activities on a worldwide basis.” Thus, a global firm secures cost or product differentiation advantages not available to domestic firms.


Question 4:

A firm expands into international markets to

A. Be in foreign markets.

B. Eliminate foreign competition

C. Pursue new, higher-profit opportunities.

D. Preclude piracy of the firm\’s products.

Correct Answer: C

A firm may decide to go abroad for many reasons, for example, to respond to a competitive challenge in its home country by another global firm, to pursue opportunities yielding greater profits, to achieve economies of scale, to diversify, or to follow customers who need international service.


Question 5:

A firm wishing to become global must consider how many national markets to enter. A firm should enter fewer national markets when

A. Communication adaptation costs are low.

B. The product need not be adapted.

C. Entry costs are low.

D. The first countries chosen are heavily populated and have high incomes.

Correct Answer: D

According to Ayal and Zif, the following are factors indicating that few national markets should be entered:

(1)

entry costs are high;

(2)

market control costs are high;

(3)

product adaptation costs are high;

(4)

communication adaptation costs are high;

(5)

the first countries selected have large populations, high incomes, and high income growth;

(6)

a dominant firm can erect high entry barriers.


Question 6:

The least risky method of entering a market in a foreign country is by

A. Indirect exports.

B. Licensing.

C. Direct exports.

D. Direct investments.

Correct Answer: A

An indirect export strategy operates through intermediaries, such as home-country merchants who buy and resell the product, home-country agents who negotiate transactions with foreign buyers fora commission, cooperatives that represent groups of sellers, and export-management firms that receive fees for administering the firm\’s export efforts. Indirect export requires lower investment than direct export and is less risky because of the intermediaries\’ expertise.


Question 7:

An advantage of a direct investment strategy when entering a foreign market is

A. Reduction in the capital at risk.

B. Shared control and responsibility.

C. Assurance of access when the foreign country imposes domestic content rules.

D. Avoidance of interaction with the local bureaucracy.

Correct Answer: C

Direct investment has many advantages:

(1)

cheaper materials or labor,

(2)

receipt of investment incentives from the host government, (3) a strong relationship with interested parties in the host country, (4) control of the investment,

(5)

a better image in the host country,

(6)

market access when domestic contest rules are in effect. However, direct investment is risky because of exposure to currency fluctuations, expropriation, potentially high exit barriers, and restraints on sending profits out of the country.


Question 8:

A firm that moves from not exporting on a regular basis to establishing plants in foreign countries has

A. Globalized.

B. Nationalized.

C. Glocalized.

D. Internationalized.

Correct Answer: D

The internationalization process is of crucial interest to nations that wish to encourage local firms to grow and to operate globally. According to Swedish researchers, it involves the following steps:

(1)

Lack of regular exports;

(2)

export via independent agents with a few markets, with later expansion to more countries;

(3)

creation of sales subsidiaries in larger markets; (4) establishment of plants in foreign countries.


Question 9:

Which strategy for a global marketing organization is based on a portfolio of national markets?

A. reaction of a division to manage international marketing.

B. A multinational strategy.

C. A global strategy.

D. Creation of an export department

Correct Answer: B

International marketing efforts take three basic forms:creation of an export department, creation of a division to manage international marketing, or global organization. The latter encompasses genuinely worldwide functions, e.g., manufacturing, marketing, finance, and logistics. Thus, worldwide operations are the organization\’s focus, not merely that of a department or division of a national firm. A global organization may follow a multinational, global, or glocal strategy. A multinational strategy adopts a portfolio approach. Its emphasis is on national markets because the need for global integration is not strong. The product is customized for each market and therefore incurs higher production costs. Decision making is primarily local with a minimum of central control. This strategy is most effective given large differences between countries. Also, exchange rate risk is reduced when conducting business in this manner.


Question 10:

Which strategy for a global marketing organization balances local responsiveness and global integration?

A. Global.

B. Multinational.

C. Glocal.

D. Transnational.

Correct Answer: C

A glocal strategy combines some elements of local responsiveness or adaptation with some elements of global integration. Successful telecommunications firms are examples of balancing these elements. Local responsiveness is indicated when local product tastes and preferences, regulations, and barriers are significant. Global integration is indicated when demand is homogeneous and economies of productive scale are large.


Question 11:

The creation of regional free trade zones is a global phenomenon. Trade barriers are lowered in these areas, and other steps are taken to promote economic cooperation. For example, a common currency has been adopted by the nations of:

A. NAFTA.

B. Mercosul.

C. APEC.

D. The European Union.

Correct Answer: D

The European Union (Eli) is a collection of 27 European nations that have lowered trade barriers among member states, and most of the nations share a common currency and trade policy. The euro is the common currency of the European Union.


Question 12:

The three major factors favoring globalization are

A. Cultural, commercial, and technical.

B. Flexibility, proximity, and adaptability.

C. Political, technological, and social.

D. Ambition, positioning, and organization.

Correct Answer: C

The new economy is driven by the digital revolution that facilitates international commerce by providing capabilities that did not exist a relatively few years ago. It is also driven by such political events as the fall of the Soviet Union, the participation of China in the world economic system, the emergence of the European Union, and the creation of other regional free trade zones. These technological and political factors are intertwined with social changes, for example, greater concern for the rights of women and minorities; the advance of multilingualism; and the convergence of tastes in fashion, music, and certain other cultural factors. Accordingly, these factors favor globalization by reducing trade barriers, reducing cost of coordination, increasing economies of scale, and encouraging standardization and global branding.


Question 13:

Which method of expanding into international markets is most likely the riskiest?

A. A local storage and sale arrangement.

B. Local component assembly.

C. Direct investment.

D. Joint venture.

Correct Answer: C

Direct investment has many advantages:

(1)

cheaper materials or labor,

(2)

receipt of investment incentives from the host government, (3) a strong relationship with interested parties in the host country, (4) control of the investment,

(5)

a better image in the host country,

(6)

market access when domestic contest rules are in effect. However, direct investment is risky because of exposure to currency fluctuations, expropriation, potentially high exit barriers, and restraints on sending profits out of the country.


Question 14:

Which of the following is a regional free-trade zone currently limited to South American nations?

A. APEC

B. Mercosul.

C. The Triad Market.

D. NAFTA.

Correct Answer: B

Mercosul is a free-trade agreement among South American nations. They include Argentina, Brazil, Uruguay, and Paraguay. Chile and Bolivia are associate members.


Question 15:

A country has a comparative advantage in international trade when

A. Firms in the country have a lower cost of production because of natural resources.

B. It has an absolute advantage with respect to at least one input to production.

C. Firms in the country have a lower cost of production because of transportation and other geographic factors.

D. It produces whatever it can produce most efficiently.

Correct Answer: D

A country has a comparative advantage when it can achieve a lower cost of production due to a focus on and a cooperative specialization in a particular product. The greatest advantage from trade is obtained when each nation specializes in producing what it can produce most efficiently. If nations specialize and then exchange with others, more is produced and consumed than if each nation tries to be self-sufficient. Specialization of labor is beneficial for individuals; the same principle applies to nations.


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Question 1:

When you modify the building model in a drawing sheet viewport, the changes are automatically updated in the original view.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Which will you NOT use when editing a Titleblock?

A. Text

B. Images

C. Lines

D. Phases

E. Labels

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Which statement about camera view is FALSE?

A. You can modify camera position and target points in a 3D view only

B. You can change the crop region by moving the top, bottom, right, and left clip planes

C. The camera target point defines the initial axis of rotation for a camera view

D. You can modify detail level and ,model graphics style of camera views

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

What is the first step to create a filter in the Filters dialog box?

A. Under Categories, select the Parameter to be included in the filter

B. Select the filter tab in the Visibility/ Graphics dialog box

C. Under Categories, Select the category of the filter to be created

D. Click New to open the Filter Name dialog box

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Which TWO tools help you save steps while placing many window types in a project?

A. Move

B. Split Face

C. Match Type

D. Create Similar

Correct Answer: CD


Question 6:

Which key rotates a component counter clockwise by 90 degrees?

A. SPACEBAR

B. CTRL

C. ENTER

D. ALT

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

What is the first step that you perform to change a section view to a detail view?

A. Select the section or callout symbol

B. On the View menu, click View Properties

C. Create a new section or callout view

D. Open the parent view

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

You can create a walkthrough by placing keyframes to generate a camera path in a plan view.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which tool copies walls or lines at a numerically assigned distance?

A. Align

B. Trim

C. Split

D. Offset

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

What connects the keyframes that you place in a plan view while drawing a walkthrough path?

A. Line

B. Field

C. Spline

D. Dashed line

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Which settings are included when you define a project environment?

A. Line Styles

B. Weather

C. Display

D. Colours

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 12:

Which statement about Detail Views is FALSE?

A. You can only delete them from the parent view

B. By default they appear only in the parent view

C. They automatically have a different view scale from the parent view

D. They appear in a separate section of the Project Brower

E. You create them with the Callout or Section Tool

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which statement is true about generic walls?

A. They consist of panels divided by grid lines

B. They consist of basic wall types placed one over the other

C. They are included in default project template

D. They are composed of parallel layers of materials

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which of the following are detail level settings that display fill patterns of compound walls?

A. Fine

B. Silhouette

C. Medium

D. Wireframe

Correct Answer: AC


Question 15:

What is the first step in creating an alignment constraint?

A. Click the padlock to constrain the alignment

B. Select the first element to align

C. Click modify tab> Edit panel> Align

D. Select the element to move into alignment

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

CORRECT TEXT

A company has decided to scale its e-commerce application from its corporate datacenter to a commercial cloud provider to meet an anticipated increase in demand during an upcoming holiday.

The majority of the application load takes place on the application server under normal conditions. For this reason, the company decides to deploy additional application servers into a commercial cloud provider using the on-premises

orchestration engine that installs and configures common software and network configurations.

The remote computing environment is connected to the on-premises datacenter via a site-to-site IPSec tunnel. The external DNS provider has been configured to use weighted round-robin routing to load balance connections from the Internet.

During testing, the company discovers that only 20% of connections completed successfully.

INSTRUCTIONS

Review the network architecture and supporting documents and fulfill these requirements:

Part 1:

1.

Analyze the configuration of the following components: DNS, Firewall 1, Firewall 2, Router 1, Router 2, VPN and Orchestrator Server.

2.

Identify the problematic device(s).

Part 2:

1.

Identify the correct options to provide adequate configuration for hybrid cloud architecture.

2.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

Part 1:

Cloud Hybrid Network Diagram

Part 2:

Only select a maximum of TWO options from the multiple choice question

A. Check the answer in explanation.

Correct Answer: A

Change the Address Space on Router2 Update the PSK (Pre-shared key in Router2)


Question 2:

CORRECT TEXT

The QA team is testing a newly implemented clinical trial management (CTM) SaaS application that uses a business intelligence application for reporting. The UAT users were instructed to use HTTP and HTTPS.

Refer to the application dataflow:

1A -The end user accesses the application through a web browser to enter and view clinical data.

2A -The CTM application server reads/writes data to/from the database server.

1B -The end user accesses the application through a web browser to run reports on clinical data.

2B -The CTM application server makes a SOAP call on a non-privileged port to the BI application server.

3B -The BI application server gets the data from the database server and presents it to the CTM application server.

When UAT users try to access the application using https://ctm.app.com or http://ctm.app.com, they get a message stating: “Browser cannot display the webpage.” The QA team has raised a ticket to troubleshoot the issue.

INSTRUCTIONS

You are a cloud engineer who is tasked with reviewing the firewall rules as well as virtual network settings.

You should ensure the firewall rules are allowing only the traffic based on the dataflow.

You have already verified the external DNS resolution and NAT are working.

Verify and appropriately configure the VLAN assignments and ACLs. Drag and drop the appropriate VLANs to each tier from the VLAN Tags table. Click on each Firewall to change ACLs as needed.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

A. Check the answer in explanation.

Correct Answer: A

On firewall 3, change the DENY 0.0.0.0 entry to rule 3 not rule 1.


Question 3:

To save on licensing costs, the on-premises, IaaS-hosted databases need to be migrated to a public DBaaS solution. Which of the following would be the BEST technique?

A. Live migration

B. Physical-to-virtual

C. Storage-level mirroring

D. Database replication

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

An SQL injection vulnerability was reported on a web application, and the cloud platform team needs to mitigate the vulnerability while it is corrected by the development team. Which of the following controls will BEST mitigate the risk of exploitation?

A. DLP

B. HIDS

C. NAC

D. WAF

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.netsparker.com/blog/web-security/sql-injection-vulnerability/


Question 5:

A systems administrator is troubleshooting performance issues with a Windows VDI environment. Users have reported that VDI performance has been slow since the images were upgraded from Windows 7 to Windows 10. This VDI environment is used to run simple tasks, such as Microsoft Office. The administrator investigates the virtual machines and finds the following settings:

1.

4 vCPU

2.

16GB RAM

3.

10Gb networking

4.

256MB frame buffer

Which of the following MOST likely needs to be upgraded?

A. vRAM

B. vCPU

C. vGPU

D. vNIC

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

A systems administrator recently upgraded the processors in a web application host. Upon the next login, the administrator sees a new alert regarding the license being out of compliance. Which of the following licensing models is the application MOST likely using?

A. Per device

B. Per user

C. Core-based

D. Volume-based

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://download.microsoft.com/download/3/d/4/3d42bdc2-6725-4b29-b75a-a5b04179958b/ percorelicensing_definitions_vlbrief.pdf


Question 7:

An organization has two businesses that are developing different software products. They are using a single cloud provider with multiple IaaS instances. The organization identifies that the tracking of costs for each business are inaccurate. Which of the following is the BEST method for resolving this issue?

A. Perform segregation of the VLAN and capture egress and ingress values of each network interface

B. Tag each server with a dedicated cost and sum them based on the businesses

C. Split the total monthly invoice equally between the businesses

D. Create a dedicated subscription for the businesses to manage the costs

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

A systems administrator needs to configure SSO authentication in a hybrid cloud environment. Which of the following is the BEST technique to use?

A. Access controls

B. Federation

C. Multifactor authentication

D. Certificate authentication

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Section: (none)

Reference: https://techbeacon.com/security/how-get-single-sign-right-todays-hybrid-it-environments


Question 9:

A systems administrator recently deployed a VDI solution in a cloud environment; however, users are now experiencing poor rendering performance when trying to display 3-D content on their virtual desktops, especially at peak times. Which of the following actions will MOST likely solve this issue?

A. Update the quest graphics drivers from the official repository

B. Add more vGPU licenses to the host

C. Instruct users to access virtual workstations only on the VLAN

D. Select vGPU profiles with higher video RAM

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/desktop-virtualization-solutions-vmware-horizon-view/whitepaper-c11-741606.pdf


Question 10:

A systems administrator has migrated an internal application to a public cloud. The new web server is running under a TLS connection and has the same TLS certificate as the internal application that is deployed. However, the IT department reports that only internal users who are using new versions of the OSs are able to load the application home page.

Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A. The local firewall from older OSs is not allowing outbound connections

B. The local firewall from older OSs is not allowing inbound connections

C. The cloud web server is using a self-signed certificate that is not supported by older browsers

D. The cloud web server is using strong ciphers that are not supported by older browsers

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Lateral-moving malware has infected the server infrastructure. Which of the following network changes would MOST effectively prevent lateral movement in the future?

A. Implement DNSSEC in all DNS servers

B. Segment the physical network using a VLAN

C. Implement microsegmentation on the network

D. Implement 802.1X in the network infrastructure

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

A company is switching from one cloud provider to another and needs to complete the migration as quickly as possible.

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration to ensure a seamless migration?

A. The cost of the environment

B. The I/O of the storage

C. Feature compatibility

D. Network utilization

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

A cloud architect is designing the VPCs for a new hybrid cloud deployment. The business requires the following:

1.

High availability

2.

Horizontal auto-scaling

3.

60 nodes peak capacity per region

4.

Five reserved network IP addresses per subnet

5.

/24 range

Which of the following would BEST meet the above requirements?

A. Create two /25 subnets in different regions

B. Create three /25 subnets in different regions

C. Create two /26 subnets in different regions

D. Create three /26 subnets in different regions

E. Create two /27 subnets in different regions

F. Create three /27 subnets in different regions

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

A systems administrator would like to reduce the network delay between two servers.

Which of the following will reduce the network delay without taxing other system resources?

A. Decrease the MTU size on both servers

B. Adjust the CPU resources on both servers

C. Enable compression between the servers

D. Configure a VPN tunnel between the servers

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://cseweb.ucsd.edu/~calder/papers/HPDC-01-DynComp.pdf


Question 15:

A company is planning to migrate applications to a public cloud, and the Chief Information Officer (CIO) would like to know the cost per business unit for the applications in the cloud. Before the migration, which of the following should the administrator implement FIRST to assist with reporting the cost for each business unit?

A. An SLA report

B. Tagging

C. Quotas

D. Showback

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.linkedin.com/pulse/cloud-showback-critical-piece-enterprise-governance-how-gowda-/


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Question 1:

An account buyer receives an email notification that their order has been approved and they can pay for the order. Once they click the associated link, it brings them to the B2B Checkout Payment After Approval layout. Which two are valid statements regarding the B2B Checkout Payment After Approval layout? (Choose two.)

A. This is an out-of-the-box layout that provides payment options for orders requiring approval

B. The layout is of type Checkout and is displayed to account shoppers only

C. The layout allows the buyer to modify the order details and input payment information

D. The layout is only displayed when the order status is PENDING_PAYMENT

Correct Answer: AD

Orders that meet the criteria for requiring approval are sent back to OCC and put into the out-of-the-box order approvals workflow. Set the layout to be displayed when the Order Status is PENDING_PAYMENT

Reference: https://blogs.oracle.com/occs/whats-new-in-174-release https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E97801_04/Cloud.19B/ExtendingCC/html/s1806checkoutflowforpaymentafterappro01.html


Question 2:

Given the example widget configuration definition:

Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. You can reference the configuration in the widget JavaScript as widget.enabled()

B. The widget configuration setting does not have a default value

C. You can reference the configuration in the widget JavaScript as site.enabled()

D. The value can be either true or false

E. The widget configuration setting will appear as a dropdown

Correct Answer: DE


Question 3:

Given the example snippet of custom widget JavaScript:

What are two correct statements about this code? (Choose two.)

A. Creates a new PAGE_CHANGED topic available for subscription

B. Uses the PubSub library to publish to a topic

C. Changes the page when the inline function runs

D. Runs the inline function when the subscribed event fires

E. Uses the PubSub library to subscribe to a topic

Correct Answer: AB


Question 4:

Your customer has a B2B Storefront instance designed to have three English language sites: North America, European Union, and Asia.

What two components will the storefront developers need to configure to support one or more sites? (Choose two.)

A. The settings for each layout to specify one or more sites valid for that layout

B. Associated component text snippets that are valid for each site

C. The layout components to include branding, images, and page content that are specific for the site

D. The profile Navigation

Correct Answer: CD


Question 5:

A developer is customizing the payment methods widget to enable the shopper to store a credit card when checking out. The widget needs to add three properties to the payments object of the JSON authorization request when creating the

order:

saveCard(Boolean)

nickname(String)

setAsDefault(Boolean)

Each of the properties needs to be bound to a particular view model for the properties to be added to the payments object.

Which is the correct view model?

A. orderViewModel

B. widgetPaymentViewModel

C. cartViewModel

D. paymentViewModel

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

What are two reasons to use the CC-Storage library to save data objects in local storage? (Choose two.)

A. to support browsers using private browsing mode

B. to support Firefox browsers only

C. to support Chrome browsers only

D. to support iOS devices using Safari

Correct Answer: AD


Question 7:

Which is NOT a step involved in creating widget configuration settings?

A. Define the configuration settings string resources for all supported locales

B. Update widget template and JavaScript code to use the configuration parameters as required

C. Define the configuration settings in a config.json file

D. Compile the configurations before the widget extension is uploaded

E. Add the widget configuration settings folders and files to the widget extension structure

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Which two statements describe the gateway configuration definition in the config.json file? (Choose two.)

A. The configType property must be set to the value payment

B. Valid values for the instances property are agent, preview, test, and storefront

C. No additional properties are needed to enable a payment method for scheduled orders

D. The configuration must include a property with the ID paymentMethodTypes

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E73348_01/Cloud.16-2/UsingCC/html/s2502createtheextension01.html https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/commerce-cloud/occ-developer/credit-card-payment-properties.html


Question 9:

What does a slot component reserve space in a layout to display?

A. a widget determined in real-time based on variable criteria

B. an ordered set of widgets specified in a tabular format

C. the header of footer of a page that contains configurable elements

D. a group of related widgets that constitute a composite shopper-based function

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

You need to develop an integration with an analytics platform that tracks shopper activity across all Commerce Cloud pages and provides its own JavaScript library. Which statement describes how you can implement this use case in Commerce Cloud?

A. Create a custom non-global widget that includes the analytics JavaScript library and upload to Commerce Cloud as a Storefront extension which will automatically apply to all layouts.

B. Create a custom global widget with a display template that includes an inline script reference to the analytics JavaScript library and upload to Commerce Cloud as a Storefront extension.

C. On the “Application-Level JavaScript” tab on the Settings Page, add the URL for the analytics JavaScript library so that it will automatically apply to all layouts.

D. Create a custom global widget that includes the analytics JavaScript library and upload to Commerce Cloud as a Storefront extension.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Why is it a best practice to use the ccLink binding in your custom widgets?

A. for ensuring the correct layout is displayed

B. for ensuring a link does not cause a full page reload

C. for ensuring that your URL is correctly formatted

D. for ensuring images are sized for the current viewport

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

An organization has implemented loyalty points as a payment currency by creating a payment gateway extension with loyaltyPoints as one of the paymentMethodTypes and configuring the Custom Curency Payment webhook. What additional step does the organization need to do to add loyalty points as a payment option on the Payments Method widget?

A. Create a custom widget extension called Loyalty Payment and add it to the checkout layout

B. Create a new checkout layout with custom widgets for payment

C. Nothing. The Payments Method widget already includes loyalty points as a payment option

D. Add the baseline Loyalty Payment widget to the checkout layout on the Design page

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E91846_01/Cloud.12-17/ExtendingCC/html/s1907useloyaltywidgets01.html


Question 13:

What are two types of assets that can be included in a storefront extension? (Choose two.)

A. Locale strings

B. REST endpoint specifications

C. Images

D. Java code

Correct Answer: AD


Question 14:

Given the example element.json element configuration:

What does the inline attribute determine?

A. whether the element should be inserted as an HTML span or as a div

B. whether the translation text is inserted into the element source

C. the display characteristic of the element

D. whether the element can be included in another element

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Consider the widget template snippet, which uses Knockout\’s containerless control flow syntax based on comment tags:

Under what condition will Item #2 be displayed?

A. Item #2 will never be displayed

B. if the Product view model is available on the page

C. Item #2 will always be displayed

D. If the shopper has a product in his/her cart

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://knockoutjs.com/documentation/if-binding.html


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Question 1:

Sometimes devices are unable to receive notifications from the Email Notification Services (ENS) server.

Which two troubleshooting steps should be taken? (Choose two.)

A. Toggle between different connection types.

B. Verify the keys values are not case-sensitive.

C. Verify that the device is running the latest iOS version.

D. Check the ENS connectivity to the Workspace ONE UEM Console.

E. Verify VMware Boxer configuration key-value pair parameters.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 2:

Which minimum rights on a Certificate Authority (CA) should be assigned for the account specified in the CA definition in the UEM Console?

A. Local admin on the CA server with the privileges: read, issue and manage certificates, manage CA, request certificates permissions.

B. Local admin on the CA server with the privileges: read, issue and manage certificates, request certificates permissions.

C. Local admin on the CA server with the privileges: full access.

D. Local admin on the CA server with the privileges: read, manage certificates, manage CA, request certificates permissions.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Workspace-ONE-UEM/1910/WS1_Certificate_Authority_Integrations.pdf


Question 3:

Where are the content gateway-related log files located on the Unified Access Gateway (UAG)?

A. /var/log/airwatch/gateway/

B. /opt/vmware/gateway/logs

C. /var/log/airwatch/content-gateway/

D. /log/vmware/content-gateway/

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/Unified-Access-Gateway/3.3.1/com.vmware.uag-331-deploy-config.doc/GUID-C16913E1-7984-4072-B1E8-7EBAE385A831.html


Question 4:

An administrator is trying to add a public iOS application by using the App Store Search option from Workspace ONE UEM. The application this administrator is looking for is not listed.

What can be the problem?

A. The Apple Push Notification Service (APNs) certificate is invalid.

B. The application is not available in the selected country.

C. The Apple Volume Purchase Program (VPP) sToken is expired.

D. The application is free of charge.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which Console location should be used to troubleshoot a device?

A. Monitor > Reports and Analytics > Events > Logs

B. Groups and Settings > Admin > Device Events

C. Monitor > Reports and Analytics > Events > Device Events

D. Groups and Settings > All Settings > Devices and Users > Advanced > Logs

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A user has completed troubleshooting an on-premises Workspace ONE UEM. Which log level does the system need to be set back to?

A. Severe

B. Full Debug

C. None

D. Error

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which two actions should be taken when the Workspace ONE UEM console is rendering text and diagrams incorrectly? (Choose two.)

A. Run lisreset.exe and check that the IIS service is running.

B. Ensure that the Workspace ONE Device Services server has a newer version than the console server.

C. Reboot the Workspace ONE SQL server.

D. Check the Workspace ONE UEM DB version to match with the Console server.

E. Stop all Workspace ONE services except the AirWatch Diagnostic Service.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 8:

Given the following Workspace ONE component process flow for troubleshooting: What is the correct flow description for the UEM Admin Console?

A. 1 = Information gathering, 2 = Issue reproduction and data collection, 3 = Issue identified and diagnosed, 4 = Apply a fix. Issue resolved?, 5 = Issue resolution, 6 = Product defect, 7 = RandD version fix

B. 1= Information gathering, 2 = Issue reproduction and data collection, 3 = Issue identified and diagnosed, 4 = Apply a fix. Issue resolved?, 5 = Issue resolution, 6 = RandD version fix, 7 = Product defect

C. 1 = Apply a fix. Issue resolved?, 2 = Issue reproduction and data collection, 3 = Information gathering, 4 = Issue identified and diagnosed, 5 = Issue resolution. 6 = Product defect, 7 = RandD version fix

D. 1 = Apply a fix. Issue resolved? 2 = Issue reproduction and data collection, 3 = Issue identified and diagnosed, 4 = Information gathering, 5 = Issue resolution, 6 = Product defect, 7 = RandD version fix

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

An administrator has enabled Kerberos Constrained Delegation (KCD) on the SEG v2. If the administrator publishes a profile without a certificate payload and the user enters the password, everything works fine. When the user publishes the same profile with a certificate payload, the system is unable to connect and synchronize emails. Which two troubleshooting steps need to be taken? (Choose two.)

A. KCD is not supported on SEG v2.

B. Verify if the service account is a member of the IIS user group on each CAS Exchange server.

C. Verify that the Workspace UEM Console certificate is uploaded as a client certificate chain.

D. Verify that port 88 is not blocked between the SEG and the Active Directory domain controller(s).

E. Verify that the service account is set to the service type OWA.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Workspace-ONE-UEM/1907/WS1_KCD_SEGV2_Doc.pdf


Question 10:

Given the following error:

What could be the issue?

A. SSL portforwarding is not configured correctly.

B. SSL v4 is configured in peer to peer mode.

C. Routing issues on the content gateway the SSL traffic is not forwarded to the UAG.

D. SSL introspection on the firewall interferes with the communication.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

An administrator receives an “HTTP 401 – not authorized” error for the Email Notification Service (ENS). What can cause this issue?

A. A wrong username is set on the ENS server.

B. The Cloud Notification Service (CNS) is unable to authorize ENS.

C. The Apple Push Notification Service (APNS) certificate is not valid.

D. An ENS Service Account is not a member of the local admin group.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://kb.vmware.com/s/article/50122031


Question 12:

An administrator has successfully configured the Google G-Suite integration with SEG v2 and password provision for all of the users. However, after a period of time, users receive a wrong password notification when trying to sync emails. What can cause this issue? (Choose two.)

A. The Google Apps Password Sync (GAPS) is enabled.

B. The Google Apps Directory Sync (GADS) is enabled.

C. SEG is not listening to port 443.

D. IP Whitelist is disabled in the Google Admin Console.

E. The service account certificate is not valid and needs to be updated on the G-Suite admin interface and uploaded to Workspace ONE UEM.

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Workspace-ONE-UEM/1811/VMware Workspace ONE UEM Google Sync Integration Guide=2=CDF PDF=en.pdf


Question 13:

When enrolling a device into a newly set up Workspace ONE environment, a user receives the error message “Invalid User Credentials”. The user has verified that they are using the correct Active Directory credentials. The user has also successfully performed the “Test Connection” process to the Active Directory integration within the Workspace ONE UEM, but they still get the same error.

How should this problem be solved?

A. Check the Device Enrollment restriction settings.

B. Exit the Airplane mode on a mobile device.

C. Enable Directory Authentication as the authentication mode.

D. Enable the Workspace ONE REST API.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

An administrator has configured a per-app tunnel in a cascade deployment type. Between the network segments, the administrator has implemented a load balancer that is providing SSL-offloading.

None of the per-app tunnel configured apps are able to establish a tunneled connection. What is the problem?

A. Per-app tunnel cannot be deployed in cascade mode.

B. Per-app tunnel does not support SSL offloading.

C. The SSL offloading needs to be enabled between the two tunnel servers.

D. Per-app tunnel does not support SSL offloading between the two relay -endpoint tunnel servers.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Workspace-ONE-UEM/1907/Tunnel_Linux/GUID-CD6FE0E3-902E-4099-A0B1-DB43B1BD0F43.html


Question 15:

Which hierarchical level allows the administrator to add an admin repository of the type Network Share (SAML)?

A. Local

B. It is not possible.

C. Site

D. Global

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

You have experienced a service failure and want to evaluate the availability status of the subservices and key components to determine why the service failed. What technique will allow you to do this?

A. Root cause analysis

B. Analysis of the .log file

C. Analysis of the soapct1.log file

D. Analysis of emct1.log

Correct Answer: A

Root Cause Analysis: Diagnostic tool to help determine the possible cause of service failure. Reference: Oracle Enterprise Manager Concepts


Question 2:

What three items can Service Availability be based on With Oracle Enterprise Manager?

A. TCP/IP ping

B. Service Test

C. Synthetic transaction

D. Components of system

E. Database latency

Correct Answer: BCD

B, D: Setting up the availability definition for the service. This can be service test-based or system-based. If you select service test, the service\’s availability is based on the execution of the service test by the one or more key beacons. If availability is based on system, availability is based on the status of one or more key components of the system.

C: The synthetic transactions provide a direct means of measuring the real end user experience for the various business services. This way of modelling the business services through the execution of synthetic transition provides a consumer perspective of the service availability and performance.

Reference: Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control Administrator\’s Guide


Question 3:

Which three activities can you perform by utilizing the monitoring templates in Oracle Enterprise Manager?

A. Apply standardized monitoring settings across managed targets.

B. Create once, and then apply monitoring and policy settings as needed.

C. Apply a template only to targets of the same type.

D. Clone templates across VMs.

E. Export templates directly to tape.

Correct Answer: ABC

Monitoring templates simplify the task of standardizing monitoring settings across your enterprise by allowing you to specify the monitoring settings once and apply them to your monitored targets. This makes it easy for you to apply specific monitoring settings to specific classes of targets throughout your enterprise. For example, you can define one monitoring template for test databases and another monitoring template for production databases.

Reference: Oracle Enterprise Manager Administration, Monitoring Templates


Question 4:

Which two privilege delegation types are supported by Oracle Enterprise Manager?

A. Sudo

B. DBrun

C. Powerbroker

D. Privilege Manager

E. Group Policy Manager

F. Persona_create

Correct Answer: AC

If you do not have access to either Oracle account or root account, then you can use SUDO or PowerBroker access to switch users to perform the tasks, this is called Privilege Delegation. Privilege Delegation is a framework that allows you to use either SUDO or PowerBroker to perform an activity with the privileges of another user (locked accounts).


Question 5:

Which three statements are true for Oracle Enterprise Manager snapshots and baselines?

A. Oracle Enterprise Manager is the interface managing baseline and baseline templates.

B. Oracle Enterprise Manager is the interface managing snapshots and snapshot templates.

C. Oracle Enterprise Manager can view but no edit the threshold settings for baseline metrics.

D. Oracle Enterprise Manager, by default, deletes baselines on a rolling seven-day interval.

E. You can specify and preserve a pair or a range of snapshot as a baseline with Oracle Enterprise Manager.

F. You can specify and preserve a pair or a range of baseline as a snapshot with Oracle Enterprise Manager.

Correct Answer: ACE

A: You can also create baselines for a contiguous time period in the future using baseline templates. There are two types of baseline templates: single and repeating.

E: (not F): A baseline is a pair of snapshots that represents a specific period of usage (not F). Once baselines are defined they can be used to compare current performance against similar periods in the past.


Question 6:

Identify three for Oracle Enterprise manager that have Configuration Change Control functionality?

A. Application management Pack

B. Database Lifecycle Management Pack

C. WebLogic Management Pack

D. Real User Experience Insight Pack

E. Data Masking Pack

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 7:

Identify three unique capabilities of the Oracle Enterprise manager Application Management Pack for Fusion Applications.

A. Captures technical configuration and topology information that is specific to Oracle Fusion Applications

B. Organizes and displays data by the Oracle Fusion Applications product

C. Captures functional usage heuristics and histograms related to Oracle Fusion Applications

D. Executes testing scripts for Oracle Applications

E. Organizes and displays data by family of Oracle Fusion Applications

Correct Answer: BCE

*

Fusions Apps user session diagnostics and full session replay

*

Fusion Apps user flow tracking, including transaction abandonment analysis

*

Customizable dashboards per application, user group segmented

*

Data warehouse integration, OLAP-based reporting

*

KPI to data store correlation analyses

*

Integrated problem diagnostics and impact analyses

*

Capture true user sessions as a source for QA testing via Oracle Application Testing Suite and/or


Question 8:

Which usage is true when you utilize the HTTPS channel to set up secure communications for Oracle Enterprise manager?

A. You use it for console access and agent data upload to Oracle management Service.

B. You use it only for console access.

C. You use it only for agent data upload to Oracle Management Service.

D. You use it when you set up High Availability.

Correct Answer: A

*

The emctl secure oms command provides immediate HTTPS browser access to the Grid Control Console by using the secure Management Agent upload port.

*

Only secure Management Agent installations that use the Management Service HTTPS channel are able to upload data to your Management Repository.

Reference: Enterprise Manager Security


Question 9:

Which three abilities are supported by the hardware management function in Oracle Manager Ops Center?

A. Updating the system firmware

B. Configuring the Infiniband fabric

C. discovering the network devices

D. configuring the security devices

E. updating firmware on third party storage

Correct Answer: ABC

A:

*

Oracle Enterprise Manager Ops Center uses firmware profiles to provision, or update firmware on an asset.

*

Oracle Enterprise Manager Ops Center supports a wide variety of hardware resources. This release of Oracle Enterprise Manager Ops Center has been extended to support the firmware update of components such as RAID Controllers,

Expanders, Disks and PDUs. You can now manage the firmware for a variety of hardware resources in Oracle Enterprise Manager Ops Center.

B: Oracle Enterprise Manager Ops Center supports Ethernet and InfiniBand network protocols.

C: In Oracle Enterprise Manager Ops Center, networks become part of a network domain in the following ways:

An asset that has a network is discovered.

A user creates a network.

A network is created when it is required. This is a dynamic network.


Question 10:

What is the primary purpose of the Middleware Diagnostics Advisor (MDA) that is included in Oracle Enterprise Manager WebLogic Server management Pack Enterprise Edition/

A. To provide configuration data reports and best practices.

B. To provide root cause analysis and recommendations based on performance metrics and configuration data of the stack (WLS, JVM, application, database, and hosts)

C. To correlate JVM threads with the underlying database tier to provide across-tier rrot cause analysis and to generate reports showing database usage related to the JVM

D. To alert on Java memory leaks in WenLogic Server

Correct Answer: B

The Middleware Diagnostics Advisor analyzes the entire stack and provides diagnostic findings by identifying the root cause of a problem. It correlates and analyzes the input and offers advice on how to resolve the problem. Reference: Managing Middleware Targets


Question 11:

The shared file system loader configuration on the Oracle Enterprise management Service is for ____________.

A. Auditing

B. Security

C. High availability

D. High availability and security

Correct Answer: C

The Management Service for Grid Control has a high availability feature called the Shared Filesystem Loader. In the Shared Filesystem Loader, management data files received from Management Agents are stored temporarily on a common

shared location called the shared receive directory. All Management Services are configured to use the same storage location for the shared receive directory. The Management Services coordinate internally and distribute among themselves

the workload of uploading files into the Management Repository. Should a Management Service go down, its workload is taken up by surviving Management Services. You must choose a shared receive directory that is accessible by all the

Management Services using redundant file storage.

Note:

Oracle strongly recommends you to configure a shared file system loader so that a common location is maintained to store all the metric data files uploaded by the Management Agents.


Question 12:

Identify four activities that can be performed by enabling oracle Enterprise manager repeat notifications.

A. Subscribe to repeatedly receive email notifications about the same metric

B. Subscribe to repeatedly receive email notifications about the same availability alert

C. Send email notifications based on a designated repeat frequency.

D. Limit email notifications by designating a maximum repeat notification.

E. Get an email copy of a notification for regulatory compliance.

F. Send email notifications based on a rotating calendar date.

Correct Answer: BCDF

Repeat notifications allow administrators to be notified repeatedly until an alert is either acknowledged or the number of Maximum Repeat Notifications has been reached (B, , D, not A). Enterprise Manager supports repeat notification for all notification methods (e-mail, OS command, PL/SQL procedure, and SNMP trap). To enable this feature for a notification method, select the Send Repeat Notifications option. In addition to setting the maximum number of repeat notifications, you can also set the time interval at which the notifications are sent (C, F).


Question 13:

Identify four capabilities of the Oracle Enterprise Manager Compliance Management feature evaluate the compliance of targets and systems.

A. Defining, customizing, and managing compliance standards

B. Defining, customizing, and managing compliance standard rules

C. Providing advice on how to bring a target and system into compliance

D. Providing advice on how to bring a target, but not a system into compliance

E. Defining, customizing, and managing custom compliance formulas

F. Defining, customizing, and managing compliance frameworks

Correct Answer: ABDF

Features of compliance management:

(A)

Compliance Standards

(B)

Compliance Standard Rules

(F)

Compliance Framework

C (not D): The Oracle Enterprise Manager Compliance Management solution:

*

Advises on how to change configuration to bring targets and systems into compliance with respect to best practices

*

Determines if targets and systems have valid configuration settings automatically

*

Determines if targets and systems are exposed to configuration-related vulnerabilities automatically

Note:

(A) A compliance framework maps to a set of compliance standards that perform a collection of checks following broadly accepted best practices to ensure that IT infrastructure, applications, business services and processes are organized, configured, managed, and monitored correctly. A compliance standard evaluation can provide information related to platform compatibility, known issues affecting other customers with similar configurations, security vulnerabilities, patch recommendations, and more. Customers can run an evaluation of compliance standards in order to learn about how they can bring their systems into compliance with recommended best practices and improve the stability and security of their systems.

Reference: Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control Extensibility Programmer\’s Guide, About the Compliance Management Solution


Question 14:

Identify three key capabilities of Oracle Enterprise Manager for Packaged Applications Management.

A. Monitoring of application and troubleshooting of core components

B. Control of application configuration and change

C. Management of applications based on business goals

D. Management of application code and version control

E. Application license monitoring

F. Application communication security

Correct Answer: ABD

Note:

* Oracle provides advanced, out-of-the-box application management solutions for Oracle E- Business Suite, Siebel, Peoplesoft, JD Edwards, and Fusion Applications. They provide end-to- end, integrated application monitoring (A) and management capabilities, resulting in improved availability, predictability, and reliability. Oracle Enterprise Manager\’s management capabilities include user experience management, performance management, change and configuration management (B), patching, provisioning, testing, integrated diagnostics and automatic tuning. Enterprise Manager also offers advanced management capabilities for managing custom applications, integrations and extensions. Capabilities such as Business Transaction Management (BTM), JVM Diagnostics (JVMD) and others are presented in further detail in the “Applications Performance Management” section.


Question 15:

Identify two true statements about the setup and use of identity management within Oracle Enterprise manager.

A. Credentials are used to access targets that are monitored and managed by Oracle Enterprise Manager.

B. Repository-Base Authentication is the default authentication.

C. Single Sign-On Authentication is the default authentication.

D. Credentials are used as the root of the data masking key.

E. Using the SCOTT/TIGER identify, you can demonstrate but not configure Oracle Enterprise Manager.

Correct Answer: AB

B: You can also monitor the performance of the Oracle Identity Manager Repository and keep track of the number of newly provisioned/created/deleted/disabled/locked users, as well as the number of newly initiated requests.