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Question 1:

According to NIST, what are the five essential characteristics of the cloud?

A. On-demand self-service, broad network access, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, and measured service

B. Networks, firewalls, storage, applications, and services

C. Platform as a service, bring your own software license, ability to reply applications over the internet, software as a service, and private network

D. On-demand network access, dedicated pool of computing resources, direct attached storage, rapid provisioning, and self service

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Power Systems Virtual Servers on IBM Cloud supports which two operating systems? (Choose two.)

A. Windows Server

B. IBM

C. VMware ESX

D. z/OS

E. AIX

Correct Answer: BE


Question 3:

After selecting all items to be part of the total configuration in the IBM Cloud Cost Estimator, in which two file formats can the results be downloaded? (Choose two.)

A. XLSX

B. JSON

C. PDF

D. XML

E. DOCX

Correct Answer: AC


Question 4:

What is a resource group in IBM Cloud?

A. Application resources that have been placed in the same zone

B. A container for resources to which access privileges can be assigned

C. A set of provisioned services labeled with the same tag

D. A group of resources that can be created on demand using a Teraform script

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

What is Salesforce?

A. A full stack cloud platform that spans public, private, and hybrid environments

B. A Software-as-a-Service offering that focuses on client relationship management

C. Enterprise software and applications for ERP, CRM, HR, and Finance running in the cloud

D. A flexible cloud platform for building, testing, deploying, and managing Microsoft- and Linux-based applications

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

How can cloud computing make a real difference to a customer\’s business?

A. Cloud delivers predictable monthly CAPEX charges which allow many businesses to more easily manage their IT budgets based on known costs and their changing compute demand

B. Cloud environments offer high availability by default meaning that migration to cloud will immediately solve any issues the business has had with application downtime

C. Cloud makes it possible for businesses to greatly decrease the time from decision to value by enabling the ability to experiment, learn, and fail fast, without large amounts of upfront capital

D. Cloud vendors sell annual hardware hosting contracts to tens of thousands of customers and can discount heavily due to economies of scale meaning cloud is inexpensive

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

As part of a VPC, what do Access Control Lists provide?

A. Subnet level firewall capabilities

B. Ability to restrict user access by role

C. Ability to prevent DDoS attacks

D. Governance for privileged access

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

What is a virtual private cloud?

A. A collection of public virtual machines built on private single tenant hardware

B. A secure, isolated private cloud hosted within a public cloud

C. A collection of private bare metal servers, running single tenant virtual machines

D. A secure, isolated, private cloud hosted on premises

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Which advantages are provided by IBM Cloud\’s databases?

A. Makes more accurate predictions, automate decisions and processes

B. Easily connect applications and data across multiple clouds

C. High availability, enhanced security, and flexible, scalable performance

D. Easily analyze data and build machine learning models

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Which factor motivates companies to increasingly adopt the use of the cloud, transforming their environments at the same time reducing the size of legacy systems and reducing costs?

A. Virtual servers can be migrated between dedicated hosts based on workload requirements

B. All public cloud resources can be freely accessed by every member all the time

C. A full on premises service stack that enables highly available, redundant, and isolated client solutions

D. The power, scalability, flexibility, and pay-as-you-go economics of the cloud

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

What describes IBM Event Streams?

A. It is used to connect different applications and have event trigger actions between applications

B. It enables a fast message provisioning capability in the cloud

C. It enables the extension of enterprise messaging to the cloud

D. It is a high throughput message bus built with Apache Kafka

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

When building a solution that requires an intelligent search service that will deliver specific answers to questions while also serving up an entire document for exploration, which IBM Cloud service should be used?

A. Knowledge Catalog

B. Watson Discovery

C. Knowledge Studio

D. Watson Explorer

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

What are containers?

A. Independent units deployed in networking spaces that are logically separated segments

B. A control group that can be run anywhere, desktop, traditional IT, or the cloud

C. An executable unit of software in which application code is packaged

D. A security group that provides security at the instance level such as VSIs

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

What makes it possible to run multiple virtual machines on a bare metal server?

A. Disk

B. Cores

C. Virtualization

D. Memory

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

What is required before creating and using toolchains that contain certain tool integrations?

A. A Continuous Delivery service

B. The Creator role permissions

C. A Kubernetes cluster

D. A container repository

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

In Unisphere which role has limited privileges that can only view the information about a storage array and is unable to make any configuration changes?

A. None

B. Monitor

C. StorageAdmin

D. Auditor

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which product(s) support(s) only 7 1 in RAID 5 configurations?

A. VMAX3

B. VMAX All Flash and PowerMax 8000

C. VMAX All Flash and PowerMax 2000

D. VMAX All Flash

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

A systems administrator plans to use Non-Disruptive Migration (NDM) to migrate data from a VMAX array running Enginuity 5876 to a PowerMax running PowerMaxOS 5978 Which NDM mode will be used?

A. Metro-based

B. Adaptive Copy

C. Asynchronous

D. Pass-through

Correct Answer: A

https://www.delltechnologies.com/asset/en-us/products/storage/technical- support/h17133-non-disruptive-migration-best-practices-and-operational-guide.pdf


Question 4:

What does a service level define*?

A. Expected average throughput for a Storage Group

B. Expected average response time target for a Storage Group

C. Expected average response time target for a disk group

D. Expected average throughput for a disk group

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Where are the Host l/Os directed to when the Storage Group is in a Non-Disruptive Migration CutoverReady state?

A. Source array only

B. Held in host cache

C. Source and target arrays

D. Target array only

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Two PowerMax arrays have been configured for replication using SRDF During a disaster recovery operation production has been transferred to the R2 devices at the target site. Which operation begins the transfer of accumulated invalid tracks from the R2s to the R1s while production work continues on the R2s?

A. Update

B. Fallback

C. Resume

D. Failover

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

A systems administrator is performing a configuration change on a PowerMax array. Where does the configuration manager perform the change?

A. Host which performs the change

B. MMCS

C. Disk drives

D. SYMAPI

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Which Unisphere for PowerMax client connection authentication type is irrevocable once it is selected?

A. LDAP – SSL

B. Multi-factor Authentication

C. x.509 Common/Principal Name

D. Windows AD Domain-based

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

A host is connected to two PowerMax arrays with SRDF/Metro Host l/Os cannot be delivered across the SRDF link. The devices in the SRDF group have been forced into a Not Ready state to the host Which attribute is set on the SRDF group to cause this behavior?

A. Local Link Domino

B. Local Auto Link Recovery

C. Update After Resume Link

D. Limbo Period

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Which Open Replicator device type resides on the array running Open Replicator?

A. Donor

B. Local

C. Control

D. Remote

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Which activity needs to be performed prior to the operations shown in the exhibit?

A. TTL setting should be changed

B. Snapshot should be terminated

C. Target volumes should be unmounted

D. Target volumes should be unmapped

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

When creating SRDP groups, what is always identical on both the participating arrays?

A. Port speed

B. Name of the SRDF group

C. SRDF group number

D. SRDF Directors

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

What is the largest TDEV PowerMaxOS 5978 can create?

A. 16 TB

B. 32 TB

C. 64 TB

D. 128 TB

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which SYMCLI command can be used to create a new TDEV and assign it to a Storage Group in one step?

A. symdev

B. symsg

C. symcfg

D. symaccess

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

How does Solutions Enabler use Gatekeepers to pass commands to the PowerMax array?

A. Automatically creates the Gatekeeper and unlocks the device. Processes the system commands; locks and deletes the Gatekeeper

B. Obtains the Gatekeeper and locks the device. Processes the system commands and unlocks the device

C. Obtains the Gatekeeper and unlocks the device Processes the system commands and locks the device.

D. Automatically creates the Gatekeeper and locks the device Processes the system commands; unlocks and deletes the Gatekeeper.

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

It has been reported to you that someone has caused an information spillage on their computer. You go to the computer, disconnect it from the network, remove the keyboard and mouse, and power it down. What step in incident handling did you just complete?

A. Containment

B. Eradication

C. Recovery

D. Discovery

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Which of the following security policies defines the use of VPN for gaining access to an internal corporate network?

A. Network security policy

B. Remote access policy

C. Information protection policy

D. Access control policy

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which of the following is the most important phase of ethical hacking wherein you need to spend considerable amount of time?

A. Gaining access

B. Escalating privileges

C. Network mapping

D. Footprinting

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

It is a short-range wireless communication technology that allows mobile phones, computers and other devices to connect and communicate. This technology intends to replace cables connecting portable devices with high regards to security.

A. Bluetooth

B. Radio-Frequency Identification

C. WLAN

D. InfraRed

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Matthew received an email with an attachment named “YouWon$10Grand.zip.” The zip file contains a file named “HowToClaimYourPrize.docx.exe.” Out of excitement and curiosity, Matthew opened the said file. Without his knowledge, the file copies itself to Matthew\’s APPDATA\IocaI directory and begins to beacon to a Command-and-control server to download additional malicious binaries. What type of malware has Matthew encountered?

A. Key-logger

B. Trojan

C. Worm

D. Macro Virus

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Which among the following is a Windows command that a hacker can use to list all the shares to which the current user context has access?

A. NET FILE

B. NET USE

C. NET CONFIG

D. NET VIEW

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

A company recently hired your team of Ethical Hackers to test the security of their network systems. The company wants to have the attack be as realistic as possible. They did not provide any information besides the name of their company. What phase of security testing would your team jump in right away?

A. Scanning

B. Reconnaissance

C. Escalation

D. Enumeration

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

TCP/IP stack fingerprinting is the passive collection of configuration attributes from a remote device during standard layer 4 network communications. Which of the following tools can be used for passive OS fingerprinting?

A. nmap

B. ping

C. tracert

D. tcpdump

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

The chance of a hard drive failure is known to be once every four years. The cost of a new hard drive is $500. EF (Exposure Factor) is about 0.5. Calculate for the Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE).

A. $62.5

B. $250

C. $125

D. $65.2

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Backing up data is a security must. However, it also have certain level of risks when mishandled. Which of the following is the greatest threat posed by backups?

A. A backup is the source of Malware or illicit information

B. A backup is incomplete because no verification was performed

C. A backup is unavailable during disaster recovery

D. An unencrypted backup can be misplaced or stolen

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

It is a widely used standard for message logging. It permits separation of the software that generates messages, the system that stores them, and the software that reports and analyzes them. This protocol is specifically designed for transporting event messages. Which of the following is being described?

A. SNMP

B. ICMP

C. SYSLOG

D. SMS

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Which of the following tools is used by pen testers and analysts specifically to analyze links between data using link analysis and graphs?

A. Metasploit

B. Wireshark

C. Maltego

D. Cain and Abel

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

If you are to determine the attack surface of an organization, which of the following is the BEST thing to do?

A. Running a network scan to detect network services in the corporate DMZ

B. Reviewing the need for a security clearance for each employee

C. Using configuration management to determine when and where to apply security patches

D. Training employees on the security policy regarding social engineering

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

What is the best Nmap command to use when you want to list all devices in the same network quickly after you successfully identified a server whose IP address is 10.10.0.5?

A. nmap -T4 -F 10.10.0.0/24

B. nmap -T4 -q 10.10.0.0/24

C. nmap -T4 -O 10.10.0.0/24

D. nmap -T4 -r 10.10.1.0/24

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which of the following is NOT an ideal choice for biometric controls?

A. Iris patterns

B. Fingerprints

C. Height and weight

D. Voice

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

In which order, from MOST to LEAST impacted, does user awareness training reduce the occurrence of the events below?

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 2:

Place the following information classification steps in sequential order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 3:

Order the below steps to create an effective vulnerability management process.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 4:

Match the objectives to the assessment questions in the governance domain of Software Assurance Maturity Model (SAMM).

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 5:

A software security engineer is developing a black box-based test plan that will measure the system\’s reaction to incorrect or illegal inputs or unexpected operational errors and situations. Match the functional testing techniques on the left with the correct input parameters on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 6:

Match the types of e-authentication tokens to their description.

Drag each e-authentication token on the left to its corresponding description on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 7:

DRAG DROP Drag the following Security Engineering terms on the left to the BEST definition on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 8:

What is the correct order of steps in an information security assessment?

Place the information security assessment steps on the left next to the numbered boxes on the right in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 9:

Match the functional roles in an external audit to their responsibilities. Drag each role on the left to its corresponding responsibility on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 10:

Which Web Services Security (WS-Security) specification handles the management of security tokens and the underlying policies for granting access? Click on the correct specification in the image below.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 11:

Which Web Services Security (WS-Security) specification negotiates how security tokens will be issued, renewed and validated? Click on the correct specification in the image below.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 12:

Which Web Services Security (WS-Security) specification maintains a single authenticated identity across multiple dissimilar environments? Click on the correct specification in the image below.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 13:

All of the following items should be included in a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) questionnaire EXCEPT questions that

A. determine the risk of a business interruption occurring

B. determine the technological dependence of the business processes

C. Identify the operational impacts of a business interruption

D. Identify the financial impacts of a business interruption

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.google.com/url?sa=tandrct=jandq=andesrc=sandsource=webandcd=1andcad=rjaanduact=8andved=0ahUKEwjbktbTp- LaAhVIr48KHZuhB0UQFggmMAAandurl=http://www. oregon.gov/das/Procurement% 2FGuiddoc /BusImpAnalysQs.docandusg=AOvVaw1wBxcnLP8ceI_yhv2r sI9h


Question 14:

Which of the following actions will reduce risk to a laptop before traveling to a high risk area?

A. Examine the device for physical tampering

B. Implement more stringent baseline configurations

C. Purge or re-image the hard disk drive

D. Change access codes

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Which of the following represents the GREATEST risk to data confidentiality?

A. Network redundancies are not implemented

B. Security awareness training is not completed

C. Backup tapes are generated unencrypted

D. Users have administrative privileges

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Which of the following has the highest requirement for the network bandwidth in B – Scan?

A. Ultrasonic imaging

B. Operation controlc.

C. Real-time call

D. Communication between doctors and patients

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

5G uses edge computing to offload traffic, guaranteeing low latency

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

In an industrial internet sensors are used to monitor the status. Which one of the following requirement in this case?

A. Low delay

B. Large bandwidth

C. High reliability.

D. Massive connections

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Which of the following companies the claimed that it will no longer develop 5G terminal baseband chipsets?_SC

A. QUALCOMM

B. Huawei

C. intel

D. Samsung

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Which one of the subcarriers spacing yield the highest spectral efficient for 5G cells on 50MHz bandwidth?

A. 15kHz

B. 60kHz

C. 30KHz

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Which of the following is the maximum bandwidth of 5G mmWave defined by 3GPP release 15 ?

A. 400 MHz

B. 8.50 MHz

C. 200 MHz

D. 100 MHz

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Which of the following is the most advanced aspect of the development phase of IoV? _SC

A. Fully Automated parking

B. Lase change assistance

C. Automated driving urban areas

D. Automatic driving in lanes

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which one of the following technologies enables 5G to better support drone services? -SC

A. AAU vertical coverage.

B. More connected users

C. Lower service delay.

D. Large cell bandwidth

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which one of the following serves as the mail application service for 5G deployment phase in the Europe and the United states? -SC

A. Internet of Vehicles (IoV)

B. Cloud VR

C. Smart manufacturing

D. FWA (Home broadband access)

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Which of following coding schemes is predominantly used for traffic channel in 5G?

A. palor code

B. turbo coding

C. convolutional code

D. LDPC

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Which of the following belong to 5G NSA networking? MC

A. Options 2 // SA (NGC)

B. Option 3x (CP will eNodeB, UP will be by gNodeB which is directly connect to EPC)

C. Option 3a (Data rendering CP for eNodeB, UP => EPC statically)

D. Option 3 //early drop family (Every thing will be on LTE eNodeB) // Option 4 -> (CP will be NGC, UP will be shared eNodeB and gNodeB) // Option 4a-> (Data rendering CP for eNodeB, UP => EPC statically) // option 7-> (LTE will be dependent on 5G network.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 12:

Which one of the following 5G service application does the V2X apply to? _SC

A. IoV

B. smart grid

C. Drone

D. IoT

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Compared with traditional plat preservation which of the following advantages does drone-based plant preservation have?_ MC

A. higher efficiency than manual operations

B. 30% less medicine is used, saving water and protecting the environment.

C. precise operation

D. high security due to man-machine separation

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 14:

Which one the following 5G terminals converts 5G signals into Wi -Fi signals for WTTx services? _SC

A. Router

B. CPE

C. Smartphone

D. Mifi.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which of the following are disadvantages of using drones on 4G communication networks?

A. Delivering flight control command is slow.

B. The signal strength is dtrong when lower the 120 from the ground but the connection is easily lost when the height exceeds 120m.

C. The uplink data rate is low.

D. The drone height is not within the mail lobe of the ground station antenna. The air signals are in disarray. There is no primary coverage cell. Frequent handovers caus significant downlink interference for terminals.

Correct Answer: ABCD


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Question 1:

What are three benefits of consolidating a Windows file serving environment on NetApp? (Choose three.)

A. The number of file servers is reduced.

B. Regulatory compliance is achieved.

C. Administrators can focus on higher value tasks.

D. The need for support from application vendors is reduced.

E. It provides quick recovery and reduced downtime.

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 2:

NetApp corporate pitch states that NetAPP brings which benefit to the complex world of enterprise data management?

A. eliminates risk in an enterprise environment

B. has lowest cost per TB

C. provides unmatched simplicity

D. completely removes complexity

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

In addition to selling the hardware and software for a NetApp solution, which NetApp Global Service should you include?

A. SupportEdge

B. ConsultingEdge

C. CustomerEdge

D. PartnerEdge

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Thin provisioning, based on NetApp FlexVol technology, is a storage allocation-on-demand functionality. Which three benefits does it provide to customers? (Choose three.)

A. improved application performance

B. reduced capital expenses for software

C. improved storage utilization

D. reduced capital expenses for storage

E. simplified storage capacity planning

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 5:

Which three activities can customers perform on the NetApp NOW self-service support Web site? (Choose three.)

A. register NetApp products

B. order software

C. download software

D. contact a local sales representative or reseller

E. verify service contracts

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 6:

What benefit does Advanced Single Instance Storage (A-SIS) provide the customer?

A. significantly faster backups

B. reduced storage requirements

C. less bandwidth required for backup to tape

D. faster application processing.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which three benefits is a customer likely to derive when using the NetApp SnapManager for Exchange solution in their messaging environment? (Choose three.)

A. virus-free email and attachments

B. recovery in minutes

C. classified and categorized email

D. simplified management with automated backups

E. quicker and easier storage provisioning

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 8:

Which publication contains detailed pricing and configuration information on new products introduced by NetApp?

A. product bulletin

B. Tech OnTap newsletter

C. product performance report

D. Spotlight Presentation

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

What are two benefits of using NetApp Protection Manager? (Choose two.)

A. centralized management of multiple NetApp devices

B. simplified management for D2D backup and restore

C. simplified management for data replication

D. centralized chargeback reporting

Correct Answer: BC


Question 10:

A Windows storage consolidation objection you might encounter is that Microsoft provides only limited support for Windows when NetApp is involved. What is the most appropriate response to this objection?

A. Microsoft and NetApp provide joint support through an OEM Premier Support Agreement.

B. NetApp unified storage enables content and/or Write Once Read Many (WORM) storage on any NetApp system allowing Exchange to be more efficient.

C. NetApp and Microsoft have a licensing agreement wherein Microsoft shares Windows communication protocols for data storage.

D. NetApp experience in large-scale enterprise deployments has earned the trust of thousands of enterprise customers.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

What differentiates NetApp from its competition? (Choose two.)

A. NetApp storage systems share a single architecture across the product line.

B. Snapshot technology allows customers to back up to tape.

C. NetApp supports Fibre Channel and Serial ATA disks in the same array.

D. Unique features such as RAID-DP and thin provisioning are standard.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 12:

Which two benefits does DataFort provide customers? (Choose two.)

A. secure virus scanning

B. transparent data encryption

C. application data integrity

D. deployment with no application changes

E. secure data classification

Correct Answer: BD


Question 13:

Which NetApp Manageability Software Family suite provides comprehensive infrastructure management?

A. Server Suite

B. Storage Suite

C. Data Suite

D. Application Suite

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

A customer is experiencing both explosive growth of e-mail and increasing demands around compliance. What should the preferred integrated solution for this customer include? (Choose two.)

A. Symantec Enterprise Vault

B. NetApp SnapLock

C. Netbackup Vault

D. NetApp SnapVault

Correct Answer: AB


Question 15:

Which service is a fixed-scope service that enables customers to take their newly-installed system to a production-ready state?

A. ConsultingEdge Services

B. Data Assessment Services

C. Rapid Deployment Services

D. SupportEdge Premium

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

A SysOps administrator is creating two AWS CloudFormation templates. The first template will create a VPC with associated resources, such as subnets, route tables, and an internet gateway. The second template will deploy application resources within the VPC that was created by the first template. The second template should refer to the resources created by the first template.

How can this be accomplished with the LEAST amount of administrative effort?

A. Add an export field to the outputs of the first template and import the values in the second template.

B. Create a custom resource that queries the stack created by the first template and retrieves the required values.

C. Create a mapping in the first template that is referenced by the second template.

D. Input the names of resources in the first template and refer to those names in the second template as a parameter.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

A company has deployed a web application in a VPC that has subnets in three Availability Zones. The company launches three Amazon EC2 instances from an EC2 Auto Scaling group behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB).

A SysOps administrator notices that two of the EC2 instances are in the same Availability Zone, rather than being distributed evenly across all three Availability Zones. There are no errors in the Auto Scaling group\’s activity history.

What is the MOST likely reason for the unexpected placement of EC2 instances?

A. One Availability Zone did not have sufficient capacity for the requested EC2 instance type.

B. The ALB was configured for only two Availability Zones.

C. The Auto Scaling group was configured for only two Availability Zones.

D. Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling randomly placed the instances in Availability Zones.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

A company is running an application on premises and wants to use AWS for data backup. All of the data must be available locally. The backup application can write only to block-based storage that is compatible with the Portable Operating System Interface (POSIX).

Which backup solution will meet these requirements?

A. Configure the backup software to use Amazon S3 as the target for the data backups.

B. Configure the backup software to use Amazon S3 Glacier as the target for the data backups.

C. Use AWS Storage Gateway, and configure it to use gateway-cached volumes.

D. Use AWS Storage Gateway, and configure it to use gateway-stored volumes.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

A company asks a SysOps administrator to ensure that AWS CloudTrail files are not tampered with after they are created. Currently, the company uses AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) to restrict access to specific trails. The company\’s security team needs the ability to trace the integrity of each file.

What is the MOST operationally efficient solution that meets these requirements?

A. Create an Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule that invokes an AWS Lambda function when a new file is delivered. Configure the Lambda function to compute an MD5 hash check on the file and store the result in an Amazon DynamoDB table. The security team can use the values that are stored in DynamoDB to verify the integrity of the delivered files.

B. Create an AWS Lambda function that is invoked each time a new file is delivered to the CloudTrail bucket. Configure the Lambda function to compute an MD5 hash check on the file and store the result as a tag in an Amazon 53 object. The security team can use the information in the tag to verify the integrity of the delivered files.

C. Enable the CloudTrail file integrity feature on an Amazon S3 bucket. Create an IAM policy that grants the security team access to the file integrity logs that are stored in the S3 bucket.

D. Enable the CloudTrail file integrity feature on the trail. The security team can use the digest file that is created by CloudTrail to verify the integrity of the delivered files.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

A company has an Amazon RDS DB instance. The company wants to implement a caching service while maintaining high availability.

Which combination of actions will meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Add Auto Discovery to the data store.

B. Create an Amazon ElastiCache for Memcached data store.

C. Create an Amazon ElastiCache for Redis data store.

D. Enable Multi-AZ for the data store.

E. Enable Multi-threading for the data store.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 6:

An existing, deployed solution uses Amazon EC2 instances with Amazon EBS General Purpose SSD volumes, an Amazon RDS PostgreSQL database, an Amazon EFS file system, and static objects stored in an Amazon S3 bucket. The Security team now mandates that at-rest encryption be turned on immediately for all aspects of the application, without creating new resources and without any downtime.

To satisfy the requirements, which one of these services can the SysOps administrator enable at-rest encryption on?

A. EBS General Purpose SSD volumes

B. RDS PostgreSQL database

C. Amazon EFS file systems

D. S3 objects within a bucket

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

A manufacturing company uses an Amazon RDS DB instance to store inventory of all stock items. The company maintains several AWS Lambda functions that interact with the database to add, update, and delete items. The Lambda functions use hardcoded credentials to connect to the database.

A SysOps administrator must ensure that the database credentials are never stored in plaintext and that the password is rotated every 30 days.

Which solution will meet these requirements in the MOST operationally efficient manner?

A. Store the database password as an environment variable for each Lambda function. Create a new Lambda function that is named PasswordRotate. Use Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) to schedule the PasswordRotate function every 30 days to change the database password and update the environment variable for each Lambda function.

B. Use AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) to encrypt the database password and to store the encrypted password as an environment variable for each Lambda function. Grant each Lambda function access to the KMS key so that the database password can be decrypted when required. Create a new Lambda function that is named PasswordRotate to change the password every 30 days.

C. Use AWS Secrets Manager to store credentials for the database. Create a Secrets Manager secret and select the database so that Secrets Manager will use a Lambda function to update the database password automatically. Specify an automatic rotation schedule of 30 days. Update each Lambda function to access the database password from Secrets Manager.

D. Use AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store to create a secure string to store credentials for the database. Create a new Lambda function called PasswordRotate. Use Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) to schedule the PasswordRotate function every 30 days to change the database password and to update the secret within Parameter Store. Update each Lambda function to access the database password from Parameter Store.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

A company hosts its website in the us-east-1 Region. The company is preparing to deploy its website into the eu-central-1 Region. Website visitors who are located in Europe should access the website that is hosted in eu-central-1. All other visitors access the website that is hosted in us-east-1. The company uses Amazon Route 53 to manage the website\’s DNS records.

Which routing policy should a SysOps administrator apply to the Route 53 record set to meet these requirements?

A. Geolocation routing policy

B. Geoproximity routing policy

C. Latency routing policy

D. Multivalue answer routing policy

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

A company is running a website on Amazon EC2 instances that are in an Auto Scaling group. When the website traffic increases, additional instances take several minutes to become available because of a long-running user data script that installs software. A SysOps administrator must decrease the time that is required for new instances to become available.

Which action should the SysOps administrator take to meet this requirement?

A. Reduce the scaling thresholds so that instances are added before traffic increases.

B. Purchase Reserved Instances to cover 100% of the maximum capacity of the Auto Scaling group.

C. Update the Auto Scaling group to launch instances that have a storage optimized instance type.

D. Use EC2 Image Builder to prepare an Amazon Machine Image (AMI) that has pre-installed software.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

A company needs to restrict access to an Amazon S3 bucket to Amazon EC2 instances in a VPC only. All traffic must be over the AWS private network. What actions should the SysOps administrator take to meet these requirements?

A. Create a VPC endpoint for the S3 bucket, and create an IAM policy that conditionally limits all S3 actions on the bucket to the VPC endpoint as the source.

B. Create a VPC endpoint for the S3 bucket, and create an S3 bucket policy that conditionally limits all S3 actions on the bucket to the VPC endpoint as the source.

C. Create a service-linked role for Amazon EC2 that allows the EC2 instances to interact directly with Amazon S3, and attach an IAM policy to the role that allows the EC2 instances full access to the S3 bucket.

D. Create a NAT gateway in the VPC, and modify the VPC route table to route all traffic destined for Amazon S3 through the NAT gateway.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

A SysOps administrator notices a scale-up event for an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group. Amazon CloudWatch shows a spike in the RequestCount metric for the associated Application Load Balancer. The administrator would like to know the IP addresses for the source of the requests.

Where can the administrator find this information?

A. Auto Scaling logs

B. AWS CloudTrail logs

C. EC2 instance logs

D. Elastic Load Balancer access logs

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

A company is using an Amazon Aurora MySQL DB cluster that has point-in-time recovery, backtracking, and automatic backup enabled. A SysOps administrator needs to be able to roll back the DB cluster to a specific recovery point within the previous 72 hours. Restores must be completed in the same production DB cluster.

Which solution will meet these requirements?

A. Create an Aurora Replica. Promote the replica to replace the primary DB instance.

B. Create an AWS Lambda function to restore an automatic backup to the existing DB cluster.

C. Use backtracking to rewind the existing DB cluster to the desired recovery point.

D. Use point-in-time recovery to restore the existing DB cluster to the desired recovery point.

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

A company is running a flash sale on its website. The website is hosted on burstable performance Amazon EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group. The Auto Scaling group is configured to launch instances when the CPU utilization is above

70%.

A couple of hours into the sale, users report slow load times and error messages for refused connections. A SysOps administrator reviews Amazon CloudWatch metrics and notices that the CPU utilization is at 20% across the entire fleet of

instances.

The SysOps administrator must restore the website\’s functionality without making changes to the network infrastructure. Which solution will meet these requirements?

A. Activate unlimited mode for the instances in the Auto Scaling group.

B. Implement an Amazon CloudFront distribution to offload the traffic from the Auto Scaling group.

C. Move the website to a different AWS Region that is closer to the users.

D. Reduce the desired size of the Auto Scaling group to artificially increase CPU average utilization.

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

A company uses Amazon Elasticsearch Service (Amazon ES) to analyze sales and customer usage data. Members of the company\’s geographically dispersed sales team are traveling. They need to log in to Kibana by using their existing corporate credentials that are stored in Active Directory. The company has deployed Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to enable authentication to cloud services.

Which solution will meet these requirements?

A. Configure Active Directory as an authentication provider in Amazon ES. Add the Active Directory server\’s domain name to Amazon ES. Configure Kibana to use Amazon ES authentication.

B. Deploy an Amazon Cognito user pool. Configure Active Directory as an external identity provider for the user pool. Enable Amazon Cognito authentication for Kibana on Amazon ES.

C. Enable Active Directory user authentication in Kibana. Create an IP-based custom domain access policy in Amazon ES that includes the Active Directory server\’s IP address.

D. Establish a trust relationship with Kibana on the Active Directory server. Enable Active Directory user authentication in Kibana. Add the Active Directory server\’s IP address to Kibana.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

An Amazon EC2 instance is running an application that uses Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queues. A SysOps administrator must ensure that the application can read, write, and delete messages from the SQS queues. Which solution will meet these requirements in the MOST secure manner?

A. Create an IAM user with an IAM policy that allows the sqs:SendMessage permission, the sqs:ReceiveMessage permission, and the sqs:DeleteMessage permission to the appropriate queues. Embed the IAM user\’s credentials in the application\’s configuration.

B. Create an IAM user with an IAM policy that allows the sqs:SendMessage permission, the sqs:ReceiveMessage permission, and the sqs:DeleteMessage permission to the appropriate queues. Export the IAM user\’s access key and secret access key as environment variables on the EC2 instance.

C. Create and associate an IAM role that allows EC2 instances to call AWS services. Attach an IAM policy to the role that allows sqs:* permissions to the appropriate queues.

D. Create and associate an IAM role that allows EC2 instances to call AWS services. Attach an IAM policy to the role that allows the sqs:SendMessage permission, the sqs:ReceiveMessage permission, and the sqs:DeleteMessage permission to the appropriate queues.

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

Today\’s spot value date is the 30th of June. What is the maturity date of a 2-month EUR deposit deal today? Assume no bank holidays.

A. 27th August

B. 30th August

C. 31st August

D. 1 September

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

How many GBP would you have to invest at 0.55% to be repaid GBP 2,000,000.00 (principal plus interest) in 90 days?

A. GBP 1,997,253.78

B. GBP 1,997,291.34

C. GBP 1,997,287.67

D. GBP 1,997,250.00

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

What is the maximum maturity of an unsecured USCP?

A. One year

B. 270 days

C. 183 days

D. 5 years

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

What happens when a coupon is paid on bond collateral during the term of a classic repo?

A. Nothing

B. A margin call is triggered on the seller

C. A manufactured payment is made to the seller

D. Equivalent value plus reinvestment income is deducted from the repurchase price

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

You have taken 3-month (92 days) deposits of CAD 12,000,000.00 at 1.10% and CAD 6,000,000.00 at 1.04%. Minutes later, you quote 3-month CAD 1.09-14% to another bank. The other dealer takes the CAD 18,000,000.00 at your quoted price. What is your profit or loss on this deal?

A. CAD 2,722.19

B. CAD 460.00

C. CAD 3,220.00

D. CAD 2,760.00

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

The tom/next GC repo rate for German government bonds is quoted to you at 1.75-80%. As collateral, you sell EUR 10,000,000.00 nominal of the 5.25% Bund July 2012, which is worth EUR 11,260,000.00, with no initial margin. The Repurchase Price is:

A. EUR 10,000,500.00

B. EUR 10,000,486.11

C. EUR 11,260,563.00

D. EUR 11,260,547.36

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

The tom/next GC repo rate for German government bonds is quoted to you at 1.75-80%. As collateral, you sell EUR 10,000,000.00 million nominal of the 5.25% Bund July 2012, which is worth EUR 11,260,000.00. If you have to give an initial margin of 2%, the Repurchase Price is:

A. EUR 11,035,336.41

B. EUR 11,035,351.74

C. EUR 11,039,752.32

D. EUR 11,039,767.65

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

A bond is trading 50 basis points special for 1 week, while the 1-week GC repo rate is 3.25%. If you held GBP 10,500,000.00 of this bond, what would be the cost of borrowing against it in the repo market?

A. GBP 7,551.37

B. GBP 6,544.52

C. GBP 5,537.67

D. GBP 1,006.85

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

If EUR/USD is quoted to you as 1.3050-53, does this price represent?

A. The number of EUR per USD

B. The number of USD per EUR

C. Depends on whether the price is being quoted in Europe or the US

D. Depends on whether the price is being quoted interbank or to a customer

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

The seller of a EUR/RUB NDF could be:

A. a potential buyer of EUR against RUB

B. speculating on an appreciation of the Russian Rouble

C. expecting rising EUR/RUB exchange rates

D. a seller of Russian Rouble

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Are the forward points significantly affected by changes in the spot rate?

A. Never

B. For very large movements and longer terms

C. Always

D. Spot is the principal influence

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Which of the following CHF/JPY quotes that you have received is the best rate for you to buy CHF?

A. 105.80

B. 105.75

C. 105.70

D. 105.85

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

You have quoted spot USD/CHF at 0.9423-26. Your customer says “I take 5”. What does he mean?

A. He buys CHF 5,000,000.00 at 0.9423

B. He buys CHF 5,000,000.00 at 0.9426

C. He buys USD 5,000,000.00 at 0.9423

D. He buys USD 5,000,000.00 at 0.9426

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Clients of a voice-broker quote EUR/USD at 1.3556-61, 1.3559-62, 1.3557-63 and 1.3555-59.

What will be the broker\’s price?

A. 1.3559 choice

B. 1.3555-63

C. 1.3559-62

D. 1.3556-59

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

You quote a customer a spot cable 1.6050-55 in USD 3,000,000.00. If they sell USD to you, how much GBP will you be short of?

A. 4,816,500.00

B. 1,869,158.88

C. 1,868,57677

D. 4,815,000.00

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

How should a DLP administrator change a policy so that it retains the original file when an endpoint incident has detected a “copy to USB device” operation?

A. Add a “Limit Incident Data Retention” response rule with “Retain Original Message” option selected.

B. Modify the agent config.db to include the file

C. Modify the “Endpoint_Retain_Files.int” setting in the Endpoint server configuration

D. Modify the agent configuration and select the option “Retain Original Files”

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Which two Infrastructure-as-a-Service providers are supported for hosting Cloud Prevent for Office 365? (Choose two.)

A. Any customer-hosted private cloud

B. Amazon Web Services

C. ATandT

D. Verizon

E. Rackspace

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://symwisedownload.symantec.com//resources/sites/SYMWISE/content/live/DOCUMENTATION/8000/DOC8244/en_US/Symantec_DLP_15.0_Cloud_Prevent_O365.pdf? __gda__=1554430310_584ffada3918e15ced8b6483a2bfb6fb (14)


Question 3:

Which detection method depends on “training sets”?

A. Form Recognition

B. Vector Machine Learning (VML)

C. Index Document Matching (IDM)

D. Exact Data Matching (EDM)

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://eval.symantec.com/mktginfo/enterprise/white_papers/b-dlp_machine_learning.WP_en-us.pdf


Question 4:

Which two detection technology options run on the DLP agent? (Choose two.)

A. Optical Character Recognition (OCR)

B. Described Content Matching (DCM)

C. Directory Group Matching (DGM)

D. Form Recognition

E. Indexed Document Matching (IDM)

Correct Answer: BE


Question 5:

A divisional executive requests a report of all incidents generated by a particular region, summarized by department. What does the DLP administrator need to configure to generate this report?

A. Custom attributes

B. Status attributes

C. Sender attributes

D. User attributes

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A DLP administrator needs to stop the PacketCapture process on a detection server. Upon inspection of the Server Detail page, the administrator discovers that all processes are missing from the display. What are the processes missing from the Server Detail page display?

A. The Display Process Control setting on the Advanced Settings page is disabled.

B. The Advanced Process Control setting on the System Settings page is deselected.

C. The detection server Display Control Process option is disabled on the Server Detail page.

D. The detection server PacketCapture process is displayed on the Server Overview page.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://support.symantec.com/content/unifiedweb/en_US/article.TECH220250.html


Question 7:

When managing an Endpoint Discover scan, a DLP administrator notices some endpoint computers are NOT completing their scans. When does the DLP agent stop scanning?

A. When the agent sends a report within the “Scan Idle Timeout” period

B. When the endpoint computer is rebooted and the agent is started

C. When the agent is unable to send a status report within the “Scan Idle Timeout” period

D. When the agent sends a report immediately after the “Scan Idle Timeout” period

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which server target uses the “Automated Incident Remediation Tracking” feature in Symantec DLP?

A. Exchange

B. File System

C. Lotus Notes

D. SharePoint

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://help.symantec.com/cs/DLP15.0/DLP/v83981880_v120691346/Troubleshooting-automated-incident-remediation-tracking?locale=EN_US


Question 9:

An administrator is unable to log in to the Enforce management console as “sysadmin”. Symantec DLP is configured to use Active Directory authentication. The administrator is a member of two roles: “sysadmin” and “remediator.” How should the administrator log in to the Enforce console with the “sysadmin” role?

A. sysadmin\username

B. sysadmin\[email protected]

C. domain\username

D. username\sysadmin

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

What activity should occur during the baseline phase, according to the risk reduction model?

A. Define and build the incident response team

B. Monitor incidents and tune the policy to reduce false positives

C. Establish business metrics and begin sending reports to business unit stakeholders

D. Test policies to ensure that blocking actions minimize business process disruptions

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Which two DLP products support the new Optical Character Recognition (OCR) engine in Symantec DLP 15.0? (Choose two.)

A. Endpoint Prevent

B. Cloud Service for Email

C. Network Prevent for Email

D. Network Discover

E. Cloud Detection Service

Correct Answer: BC


Question 12:

Which two actions are available for a “Network Prevent: Remove HTTP/HTTPS content” response rule when the content is unable to be removed? (Choose two.)

A. Allow the content to be posted

B. Remove the content through FlexResponse

C. Block the content before posting

D. Encrypt the content before posting

E. Redirect the content to an alternative destination

Correct Answer: AE


Question 13:

Which two factors are common sources of data leakage where the main actor is well-meaning insider? (Choose two.)

A. An absence of a trained incident response team

B. A disgruntled employee for a job with a competitor

C. Merger and Acquisition activities

D. Lack of training and awareness

E. Broken business processes

Correct Answer: BD


Question 14:

Which option is an accurate use case for Information Centric Encryption (ICE)?

A. The ICE utility encrypts files matching DLP policy being copied from network share through use of encryption keys.

B. The ICE utility encrypts files matching DLP policy being copied to removable storage through use of encryption keys.

C. The ICE utility encrypts files matching DLP policy being copied to removable storage on an endpoint use of certificates.

D. The ICE utility encrypts files matching DLP policy being copied from network share through use of certificates

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://help.symantec.com/cs/ICE1.0/ICE/v126756321_v120576779/Using-ICE-with-Symantec-Data-Loss-Preventionabout_dlp?locale=EN_US


Question 15:

A DLP administrator is attempting to add a new Network Discover detection server from the Enforce management console. However, the only available options are Network Monitor and Endpoint servers. What should the administrator do to make the Network Discover option available?

A. Restart the Symantec DLP Controller service

B. Apply a new software license file from the Enforce console

C. Install a new Network Discover detection server

D. Restart the Vontu Monitor Service

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Given the example widget configuration definition:

Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. You can reference the configuration in the widget JavaScript as widget.enabled()

B. The widget configuration setting does not have a default value

C. You can reference the configuration in the widget JavaScript as site.enabled()

D. The value can be either true or false

E. The widget configuration setting will appear as a dropdown

Correct Answer: DE


Question 2:

Given the example snippet of custom widget JavaScript:

What are two correct statements about this code? (Choose two.)

A. Creates a new PAGE_CHANGED topic available for subscription

B. Uses the PubSub library to publish to a topic

C. Changes the page when the inline function runs

D. Runs the inline function when the subscribed event fires

E. Uses the PubSub library to subscribe to a topic

Correct Answer: AB


Question 3:

The design of a particular B2B storefront implementation has three supported locales.

When configuring the Profile Navigation

Correct Answer: B

Three layouts to the Profile Navigation


Question 4:

Given this widget JavaScript snippet using the CCRestClient library:

What is the URL of the created request to Commerce Cloud?

A. GET /ccstore/v1/products

B. GET /ccstore/v1/products/xprod2119

C. POST /ccstore/v1/products

D. PUT /ccstore/v1/products/xprod2119

E. GET/ccstore/v1/products?getProduct=xprod2119

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Your customer has a B2B Storefront instance designed to have three English language sites: North America, European Union, and Asia.

What two components will the storefront developers need to configure to support one or more sites? (Choose two.)

A. The settings for each layout to specify one or more sites valid for that layout

B. Associated component text snippets that are valid for each site

C. The layout components to include branding, images, and page content that are specific for the site

D. The profile Navigation

Correct Answer: CD


Question 6:

The Profile Navigation ?Account Shoppers widget instance settings specifies the storefront role of buyer for the Account Address Book.

Note that the storefront role for the /accountaddressbook URL is specified as buyer.

Which configuration step is needed to allow a delegated administrator the privilege to create, edit, and delete account addresses?

A. Nothing needs to be configured. The account Addresses widget will automatically provide additional create, edit, and delete privileges for delegated administrators.

B. Modify the settings for the Account Address Book and specify the storefront role of admin.

C. The Account Addresses widget will need to be customized to perform this functionality.

D. Create an additional Account Address Book layout that allows delegated administrators the privilege to perform the tasks.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

What are two reasons to use the CC-Storage library to save data objects in local storage? (Choose two.)

A. to support browsers using private browsing mode

B. to support Firefox browsers only

C. to support Chrome browsers only

D. to support iOS devices using Safari

Correct Answer: AD


Question 8:

Which is NOT a step involved in creating widget configuration settings?

A. Define the configuration settings string resources for all supported locales

B. Update widget template and JavaScript code to use the configuration parameters as required

C. Define the configuration settings in a config.json file

D. Compile the configurations before the widget extension is uploaded

E. Add the widget configuration settings folders and files to the widget extension structure

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Given the example custom widget Javascript:

In order to employ the Cart view model, what should the custom widget\’s widget.json descriptor contain for the imports attribute?

A. The imports attribute should contain the value “user” because the cart view model belongs to the user

B. The imports attribute is only valid for global widgets and is not relevant

C. The imports attribute can be empty because the Cart view model is global

D. The imports attribute should contain the value “cart”

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

You need to display a message to a logged in shopper about a relevant promotion, based on the number of products in the cart and the total value of the items. You develop a custom widget that uses the User, Cart and Site view models as displayed in this example Javascipt:

Under what condition is the showCartMsg() function true?

A. Only when there is at least one item in the cart and the cat subtotal is less than the value of minSpend

B. When a user is logged in and there is at least one item in the cart and the cart subtotal is less than the value of minSpend

C. If either a user is logged in or there is at least one item in the cart or the cart subtotal is less than the value of minSpend

D. As long as the user is logged in; the status of the cart does not matter

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

A merchant has two country sites, US and France. The Site Base URL for the US site is www.example.com. They plan to use a subfolder to differentiate the French site\’s URL. For example, they could set it to www.example.com/france. What is a potential consequence of using the fr locate code as the subfolder for the French site\’s URL, such as www.example.com/fr, instead?

A. Commerce Cloud does not understand locale codes when used as a subfolder, leading to 404 not found messages in the shopper browser.

B. If the US site is configured to have French as an additional language, the system cannot tell if www.example.com/fr is the French site or the French translation of the English site.

C. Commerce Cloud has logic built in to avoid any confusion between subfolders and locales, editing the URL when generating the page to differentiate between the locale and the subfolder name.

D. You receive an error message on the Settings page when setting the Site Base URL to a recognized locale, preventing you from using it as the subfolder.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Which two statements describe the gateway configuration definition in the config.json file? (Choose two.)

A. The configType property must be set to the value payment

B. Valid values for the instances property are agent, preview, test, and storefront

C. No additional properties are needed to enable a payment method for scheduled orders

D. The configuration must include a property with the ID paymentMethodTypes

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E73348_01/Cloud.16-2/UsingCC/html/s2502createtheextension01.html https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/saas/commerce-cloud/occ-developer/credit-card-payment-properties.html


Question 13:

What does a slot component reserve space in a layout to display?

A. a widget determined in real-time based on variable criteria

B. an ordered set of widgets specified in a tabular format

C. the header of footer of a page that contains configurable elements

D. a group of related widgets that constitute a composite shopper-based function

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Why is it a best practice to use the ccLink binding in your custom widgets?

A. for ensuring the correct layout is displayed

B. for ensuring a link does not cause a full page reload

C. for ensuring that your URL is correctly formatted

D. for ensuring images are sized for the current viewport

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

What are two types of assets that can be included in a storefront extension? (Choose two.)

A. Locale strings

B. REST endpoint specifications

C. Images

D. Java code

Correct Answer: AD