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Question 1:

Which three events trigger the automated NWAM configuration? (Choose three.)

A. a DHCP lease is acquired.

B. a WLAN card is disconnected.

C. The DefaultFixed NCP is enabled.

D. An Ethernet cable is disconnected.

E. A failed interface card assigned to an IPMP group is replaced.

F. The dladm create-vnic command is executed to create a virtual network interface.

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 2:

alice is a user account used by Alice on a Solaris 11 system.

sadmin is a role account on the same system.

Your task is to add the command /usr/sbin/cryptoadm to the Network management profile, so that Alice can execute it, while assuming the sadmin role.

Select the three activities necessary to accomplish this.

A. To the file /etc/security/prof_attr, add the line: Network Management: solaris:cmd:RO::/usr/sbin/cryptoadm:euid=0

B. To the file /etc/security/auth_attr, add the line: Network Management: solaris:cmd:RO::/usr/sbin/cryptoadm:euid=0

C. To the file /etc/security/exec_attr.d/local-entriies, add the line: Network Management: solaris:cmd:RO::/usr/sbin/cryptoadm:euid=0

D. Run the roles alice to ensure that alice may assume the role sadmin.

E. Run the command profiles sadmin to ensure that the role sadmin includes the network Management profile.

F. Run the command profiles alice to ensure that the Alice has permissions to access the Network management profile.

G. Run the command profiles “Network management” to ensure that the Network management profile includes the sadmin role.

Correct Answer: CDG

Explanation: C: /etc/security/exec_attr is a local database that specifies the execution attributes associated with profiles. The exec_attr file can be used with other sources for execution profiles, including the exec_attr NIS map and NIS table.

A profile is a logical grouping of authorizations and com- mands that is interpreted by a profile shell to form a secure execution environment.

Reference: man exec_attr


Question 3:

Solaris 11 includes a redesigned software packaging model: the Image Packaging System.

Which three describe advantages of the Image Packaging System over the previous Solaris 10 SVR4 packaging model? (Choose three.)

A. eliminates patching of the software package

B. makes the patching process more efficient with less downtime

C. eliminates OS version upgrade

D. allows for the installation of the OS without a local DVD or installation server

E. allows the use of a repository mirror to speed up package operation

F. allows users to publish their own software package in a software repository

Correct Answer: AEF


Question 4:

You are troubleshooting the failure of a computer to mount an NFS file system hosted by a server (hostname mars) in the local area network.

Select the three commands that will enable you to identify the problem.

A. ping – s mars

B. cat /etc/vfstab

C. cat /etc/dfs/dfstab

D. sharemgr show -v

E. showmount -e mars

F. rpcinfo -s mars | egrep `nfs|mountd\’

Correct Answer: AEF

mount: mount-point /DS9 does not exist.

To solve the mount point error condition, check that the mount point exists on the client. Check the spelling of the mount point on the command line or in the /etc/vfstab file (B) on the client, or comment outthe entry and reboot the system.

Note: The /etc/vfstab file lists all the file systems to be automatically mounted at system boot time, with the exception of the /etc/mnttab and /var/run file systems.

E: showmount This command displays all clients that have remotely mounted file systems that are shared from an NFS server, or only the file systems that are mounted by clients, or the shared file systems with the client access information. The command syntax is:

showmount [ -ade ] [ hostname ]

where -a prints a list of all the remote mounts (each entry includes the client name and the directory), -d prints a list of the directories that are remotely mounted by clients, -e prints a list of the files shared (or exported), and hostname selects the NFS server to gather the information from. If hostname is not specified the local host is queried.

F: * mountd Daemon

This daemon handles file-system mount requests from remote systems and provides access control. The mountd daemon checks /etc/dfs/sharetab to determine which file systems are available for remote mounting and which systems are

allowed to do the remote mounting.

* Commands for Troubleshooting NFS Problems

These commands can be useful when troubleshooting NFS problems.

rpcinfo Command

This command generates information about the RPC service that is running on a system.

Reference: man showmount


Question 5:

Review the output from a ZFS file system:

NAMEPROPERTYVALUESOURCE

pool1/encryptencryptionaes-256-ccmlocal pool1/encryptkeysourceraw,file///mykeylocal

You need to recreate the pooM/encrypt file system exactly as it is listed above Which two commands can you use to recreate the pooM/encrypt file system?

(Choose two.)

A. pktool genkey keystone=file outkey=/mykey keytype=aes keylen=256

B. genkey pktool keystore=file outkey=/mykey keytype=aes keylen=256

C. zfs create -o encryption=aes-256-ccm -o keysource=raw,file://mykey pooll/encrypt

D. zfs create -o encryption=aes-256-ccm -o keysource=raw,file:///mykey pooM/encrypt

E. zfs create -o encryption=aes-256-ccm -o keysource=raw,file:///mykey source=local pooll/encrypt

Correct Answer: BC


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Question 1:

Which targets can be managed by using Enterprise Manager Cloud Control?

A. Hosts and databases

B. Hosts, databases, and application servers

C. Application servers and web applications

D. Databases, Oracle Management Server (OMS), and Oracle Management Repository (OMR)

E. Databases, application servers, and web applications

F. Hosts, databases, application servers, web applications, OMS, and OMR

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/oem/framework-infra/wp-em12c-security-best- practicesv2-1493383.pdf (page 3, second bulleted point, last couple of sentences)


Question 2:

Which type of file system is NOT valid for storing data files, online redo log files, and control files for a pluggable database?

A. Automatic Storage Management (ASM)

B. OS file system

C. logical volume (LVM)

D. clustered file system

E. RAW

Correct Answer: E


Question 3:

Which two statements about ADDM are true?

A. Real-Time ADDM uses AWR snapshots of the last 10 minutes.

B. Real-Time ADDM uses ASH recent activity from SGA data.

C. Real-Time ADDM analyzes performance in a completely different fashion than regular ADDM.

D. Regular ADDM uses AWR snapshots that are not yet purged.

Correct Answer: CD

C: Real-Time ADDM provides an innovative way to analyze problems in unresponsive or hung databases.

Using a normal and a diagnostic mode connection Real-Time ADDM runs through a set of predefined criteria to analyze the current performance and helps the DBA to resolve deadlocks, hangs, shared pool contentions and many other

exception situations that today forces the administrator to bounce their databases, causing significant loss of revenue. Real-Time ADDM is the only tool available in the market today that can log into a hung database, analyze the problem and

recommend a resolution.

Note: Real-Time ADDM is an innovative way to analyze problems in extremely slow or unresponsive databases, which would have traditionally required a database restart. Real-Time ADDM can help resolve issues such as deadlocks, hangs,

and shared pool contentions, as well as many other exception situations, without resorting to a restart of the database.

D: ADDM builds upon the data captured in AWR.


Question 4:

Which logical storage relationship is correct?

A. Tablespace< Segment < Extent < Oracle Datablock

B. B) Segment < Extent < Oracle Datablock<Tablespace

C. Tablespace< Extent < Segment < Oracle Datablock

D. Data File <Tablespace< Segment < Extent < Oracle Datablock

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://www.dummies.com/how-to/content/basics-of-logical-structures-in-oracle- 12c.html


Question 5:

Which three statements about Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) are true?

A. It requires the database to be open.

B. It analyzes the performance of specified objects.

C. It implements all recommendations automatically.

D. It recommends solutions and quantifies expected benefits.

E. It retains snapshots in the SYSAUX tablespace until the database is restarted.

F. It analyzes the snapshots stored in the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR).

Correct Answer: BDF

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14211/diagnsis.htm


Question 6:

Which is the default port number for Database Express?

A. 7801

B. 5500

C. 2243

D. 1521

E. 22

Correct Answer: D

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B25329_01/doc/install.102/b25143.pdf (page 4, first bulleted point)


Question 7:

Which tool is recommended for moving a PDB to a non-CDB?

A. RMAN

B. Cold Backup

C. Traditional Export / Import

D. Data Pump

E. SQL*Plus

Correct Answer: E

Creating a PDB by Plugging an Unplugged PDB into a CDB

An unplugged PDB consists of an XML file that describes the PDB and the PDB\’s files (such as the data files and wallet file). You can use the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE statement to plug in an unplugged PDB. To do so, you must include a USING clause that specifies the XML file that describes the PDB.

The source CDB is the CDB from which the PDB was unplugged. The target CDB is the CDB into which you are plugging the PDB. The source CDB and target CDB can be the same CDB or different CDBs.


Question 8:

Which new process was introduced as of Oracle Database 12c?

A. Result Cache Background process (RCBG)

B. AQ Coordinator process (QMNC)

C. Change Tracking Writer process (CTWR)

D. Listener Registration process (LREG)

Correct Answer: D

Reference: http://musingdba.wordpress.com/2013/07/05/new-in-oracle-database-12c-a/


Question 9:

Your customer has two CDBs: one for Production and one for development. You are asked to create a new development PDB (salesdev) from an existing production PDB (salesprd).

Which two options would accomplish this?

A. You copy all the PDBSSEEDdata files from the production CDB into the development CDB and execute this on the development CDB; SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev ADMIN USER salesdm IDENTIFIED by password;

B. You alter the salesprd source database to open in read-only mode, and start cloning the source database: SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesprd OPEN READ ONLY; SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev FROM salesprd;

C. You alter the salesprd source database to open in read-only mode: SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesprd OPEN READ ONLY; In the development CDB, you create a databaselink “PRD” that connects to the root of the source CDB, and start cloning the source PDB: SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdevFROM [email protected];

D. Connected as the salesprd local DBA, you create an XML using: SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salespdb UNPLUG INTO \’ /tmp/salesprd-xml\’ ; Copy the XML file and all salesprd-related files to the target CDB and start plugging the copy into the development CDB using: SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev USING\’ /tmp/salesprd.xml\’;

Correct Answer: AD

A: Creating a PDB Using the Seed

You can use the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE statement to create a PDB in a CDB using the files of the seed.

D: Plugging In an Unplugged PDB

To plug in an unplugged PDB, the following prerequisites must be met:

*

Complete the prerequisites described in “Preparing for PDBs”.

*

The XML file that describes the PDB must exist in a location that is accessible to the CDB.

The USING clause must specify the XML file.

Etc


Question 10:

Which option represents the steps to add a multiplexed copy of the current control file or to rename a control file in Oracle Database 12c?

a – Shut down the database.

b – Restart the database.

c – Copy an existing control file to a new location by using operating system commands.

d – Edit the CONTROL_FILESparameter in the database initialization parameter file to add the new control file name, or to change the existingcontrol file name.

A. b, c, d

B. a, c, d, b

C. a, d, b, c

D. c, d, b

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/server.121/e17636/control.htm#ADMIN11287


Question 11:

Your customer is looking for a solution that meets these four needs:

1 – Replicate data from source to target for reporting purposes. 2 -Replicate data from one source to multiple targets. 3 – Replicate data between two databases for instant failover. 4 – Replicate data from multiple sources to a single target for a data warehouse.

Which GoldenGate-supported topology would you recommended?

A. Uni-directional for 1 Peer-to-peer for 2 Bi-directional for 3 Consolidation for 4

B. Peer-to-peer for 1 Broadcast for 2 Bi-directional for 3 Consolidation for 4

C. Uni-directional for 1 Broadcast for 2 Bi-directional for 3 Consolidation for 4

D. Peer-to-peer for 1 Consolidation for 2 Broadcast for 3 Cascading for 4

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Consider 10 scenarios that result in database downtime. Which five of them are considered as planned downtime?

A. addition or removal of nodes, memory, or disks

B. changing configuration parameters, upgrading, or patching Oracle software

C. file deletion D. migrating to cluster architecture

E. dropped database object

F. table definition changes

G. runaway processes that consume system resources

H. adding table partitioning

I. operating system or storage device / driver failure

J. database or application deadlocks

Correct Answer:

Answer: ADHIJ Answer: A, D, H, I, J


Question 13:

Which two statements are true about transactions in Oracle Database 12c?

A. Multiple transactions can use the same undo segment.

B. A transaction is assigned an undo segment when it is started.

C. Multiple transactions cannot share the same extent in an undo tablespace.

D. If all the segments in an undo tablespace are used, transactions use system undo segments to store undo data.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Which two statements about Data Recovery Advisor are true?

A. Data Recovery Advisor can be used to diagnose and repair data corruptions in non-CDBs.

B. Data Recovery Advisor cannot be used to diagnose and repair data corruptions in the root of a CDB.

C. Data Recovery Advisor can be used to diagnose and repair data corruptions in PDBs.

D. You can use the ADVISE FAILURE command to display repair options after running LIST FAILURE in an RMAN session.

Correct Answer: AD

A (not B): In the current release, Data Recovery Advisor can only be used to diagnose and repair data corruptions in non-CDBs and the root of a multitenant container database (CDB). Not C: Data Recovery Advisor is not supported for pluggable databases (PDBs).

D: A failure is detected either automatically by the database or through a manual check such as the VALIDATE command. You can use the LIST FAILURE command to view problem statements for failures and the effect of these failures on database operations. Each failure is uniquely identified by a failure number. In the same RMAN session, you can then use the ADVISE FAILURE command to view repair options, which typically include both automated and manual options.

Reference: Oracle Database Backup and Recovery User\’s Guide, 12c, Diagnosing and Repairing Failures with Data Recovery Advisor


Question 15:

Which statement about Online Move Data file is true?

A. Moving a data file online prevents DML operations on segments stored in the data file.

B. Flashing back a database to a point in time before a data file had been renamed online retains the new name.

C. Moving a data file online can be performed if the data file is in OFFLINE mode.

D. Moving a data file online cannot be performed if the data file is under BEGIN BACKUP.

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

You have experienced a service failure and want to evaluate the availability status of the subservices and key components to determine why the service failed. What technique will allow you to do this?

A. Root cause analysis

B. Analysis of the .log file

C. Analysis of the soapct1.log file

D. Analysis of emct1.log

Correct Answer: A

Root Cause Analysis: Diagnostic tool to help determine the possible cause of service failure. Reference: Oracle Enterprise Manager Concepts


Question 2:

What three items can Service Availability be based on With Oracle Enterprise Manager?

A. TCP/IP ping

B. Service Test

C. Synthetic transaction

D. Components of system

E. Database latency

Correct Answer: BCD

B, D: Setting up the availability definition for the service. This can be service test-based or system-based. If you select service test, the service\’s availability is based on the execution of the service test by the one or more key beacons. If availability is based on system, availability is based on the status of one or more key components of the system.

C: The synthetic transactions provide a direct means of measuring the real end user experience for the various business services. This way of modelling the business services through the execution of synthetic transition provides a consumer perspective of the service availability and performance.

Reference: Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control Administrator\’s Guide


Question 3:

Which three activities can you perform by utilizing the monitoring templates in Oracle Enterprise Manager?

A. Apply standardized monitoring settings across managed targets.

B. Create once, and then apply monitoring and policy settings as needed.

C. Apply a template only to targets of the same type.

D. Clone templates across VMs.

E. Export templates directly to tape.

Correct Answer: ABC

Monitoring templates simplify the task of standardizing monitoring settings across your enterprise by allowing you to specify the monitoring settings once and apply them to your monitored targets. This makes it easy for you to apply specific monitoring settings to specific classes of targets throughout your enterprise. For example, you can define one monitoring template for test databases and another monitoring template for production databases.

Reference: Oracle Enterprise Manager Administration, Monitoring Templates


Question 4:

Which two privilege delegation types are supported by Oracle Enterprise Manager?

A. Sudo

B. DBrun

C. Powerbroker

D. Privilege Manager

E. Group Policy Manager

F. Persona_create

Correct Answer: AC

If you do not have access to either Oracle account or root account, then you can use SUDO or PowerBroker access to switch users to perform the tasks, this is called Privilege Delegation. Privilege Delegation is a framework that allows you to use either SUDO or PowerBroker to perform an activity with the privileges of another user (locked accounts).


Question 5:

Which three statements are true for Oracle Enterprise Manager snapshots and baselines?

A. Oracle Enterprise Manager is the interface managing baseline and baseline templates.

B. Oracle Enterprise Manager is the interface managing snapshots and snapshot templates.

C. Oracle Enterprise Manager can view but no edit the threshold settings for baseline metrics.

D. Oracle Enterprise Manager, by default, deletes baselines on a rolling seven-day interval.

E. You can specify and preserve a pair or a range of snapshot as a baseline with Oracle Enterprise Manager.

F. You can specify and preserve a pair or a range of baseline as a snapshot with Oracle Enterprise Manager.

Correct Answer: ACE

A: You can also create baselines for a contiguous time period in the future using baseline templates. There are two types of baseline templates: single and repeating.

E: (not F): A baseline is a pair of snapshots that represents a specific period of usage (not F). Once baselines are defined they can be used to compare current performance against similar periods in the past.


Question 6:

Identify three for Oracle Enterprise manager that have Configuration Change Control functionality?

A. Application management Pack

B. Database Lifecycle Management Pack

C. WebLogic Management Pack

D. Real User Experience Insight Pack

E. Data Masking Pack

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 7:

Identify three unique capabilities of the Oracle Enterprise manager Application Management Pack for Fusion Applications.

A. Captures technical configuration and topology information that is specific to Oracle Fusion Applications

B. Organizes and displays data by the Oracle Fusion Applications product

C. Captures functional usage heuristics and histograms related to Oracle Fusion Applications

D. Executes testing scripts for Oracle Applications

E. Organizes and displays data by family of Oracle Fusion Applications

Correct Answer: BCE

*

Fusions Apps user session diagnostics and full session replay

*

Fusion Apps user flow tracking, including transaction abandonment analysis

*

Customizable dashboards per application, user group segmented

*

Data warehouse integration, OLAP-based reporting

*

KPI to data store correlation analyses

*

Integrated problem diagnostics and impact analyses

*

Capture true user sessions as a source for QA testing via Oracle Application Testing Suite and/or


Question 8:

Which usage is true when you utilize the HTTPS channel to set up secure communications for Oracle Enterprise manager?

A. You use it for console access and agent data upload to Oracle management Service.

B. You use it only for console access.

C. You use it only for agent data upload to Oracle Management Service.

D. You use it when you set up High Availability.

Correct Answer: A

*

The emctl secure oms command provides immediate HTTPS browser access to the Grid Control Console by using the secure Management Agent upload port.

*

Only secure Management Agent installations that use the Management Service HTTPS channel are able to upload data to your Management Repository.

Reference: Enterprise Manager Security


Question 9:

Which three abilities are supported by the hardware management function in Oracle Manager Ops Center?

A. Updating the system firmware

B. Configuring the Infiniband fabric

C. discovering the network devices

D. configuring the security devices

E. updating firmware on third party storage

Correct Answer: ABC

A:

*

Oracle Enterprise Manager Ops Center uses firmware profiles to provision, or update firmware on an asset.

*

Oracle Enterprise Manager Ops Center supports a wide variety of hardware resources. This release of Oracle Enterprise Manager Ops Center has been extended to support the firmware update of components such as RAID Controllers,

Expanders, Disks and PDUs. You can now manage the firmware for a variety of hardware resources in Oracle Enterprise Manager Ops Center.

B: Oracle Enterprise Manager Ops Center supports Ethernet and InfiniBand network protocols.

C: In Oracle Enterprise Manager Ops Center, networks become part of a network domain in the following ways:

An asset that has a network is discovered.

A user creates a network.

A network is created when it is required. This is a dynamic network.


Question 10:

What is the primary purpose of the Middleware Diagnostics Advisor (MDA) that is included in Oracle Enterprise Manager WebLogic Server management Pack Enterprise Edition/

A. To provide configuration data reports and best practices.

B. To provide root cause analysis and recommendations based on performance metrics and configuration data of the stack (WLS, JVM, application, database, and hosts)

C. To correlate JVM threads with the underlying database tier to provide across-tier rrot cause analysis and to generate reports showing database usage related to the JVM

D. To alert on Java memory leaks in WenLogic Server

Correct Answer: B

The Middleware Diagnostics Advisor analyzes the entire stack and provides diagnostic findings by identifying the root cause of a problem. It correlates and analyzes the input and offers advice on how to resolve the problem. Reference: Managing Middleware Targets


Question 11:

The shared file system loader configuration on the Oracle Enterprise management Service is for ____________.

A. Auditing

B. Security

C. High availability

D. High availability and security

Correct Answer: C

The Management Service for Grid Control has a high availability feature called the Shared Filesystem Loader. In the Shared Filesystem Loader, management data files received from Management Agents are stored temporarily on a common

shared location called the shared receive directory. All Management Services are configured to use the same storage location for the shared receive directory. The Management Services coordinate internally and distribute among themselves

the workload of uploading files into the Management Repository. Should a Management Service go down, its workload is taken up by surviving Management Services. You must choose a shared receive directory that is accessible by all the

Management Services using redundant file storage.

Note:

Oracle strongly recommends you to configure a shared file system loader so that a common location is maintained to store all the metric data files uploaded by the Management Agents.


Question 12:

Identify four activities that can be performed by enabling oracle Enterprise manager repeat notifications.

A. Subscribe to repeatedly receive email notifications about the same metric

B. Subscribe to repeatedly receive email notifications about the same availability alert

C. Send email notifications based on a designated repeat frequency.

D. Limit email notifications by designating a maximum repeat notification.

E. Get an email copy of a notification for regulatory compliance.

F. Send email notifications based on a rotating calendar date.

Correct Answer: BCDF

Repeat notifications allow administrators to be notified repeatedly until an alert is either acknowledged or the number of Maximum Repeat Notifications has been reached (B, , D, not A). Enterprise Manager supports repeat notification for all notification methods (e-mail, OS command, PL/SQL procedure, and SNMP trap). To enable this feature for a notification method, select the Send Repeat Notifications option. In addition to setting the maximum number of repeat notifications, you can also set the time interval at which the notifications are sent (C, F).


Question 13:

Identify four capabilities of the Oracle Enterprise Manager Compliance Management feature evaluate the compliance of targets and systems.

A. Defining, customizing, and managing compliance standards

B. Defining, customizing, and managing compliance standard rules

C. Providing advice on how to bring a target and system into compliance

D. Providing advice on how to bring a target, but not a system into compliance

E. Defining, customizing, and managing custom compliance formulas

F. Defining, customizing, and managing compliance frameworks

Correct Answer: ABDF

Features of compliance management:

(A)

Compliance Standards

(B)

Compliance Standard Rules

(F)

Compliance Framework

C (not D): The Oracle Enterprise Manager Compliance Management solution:

*

Advises on how to change configuration to bring targets and systems into compliance with respect to best practices

*

Determines if targets and systems have valid configuration settings automatically

*

Determines if targets and systems are exposed to configuration-related vulnerabilities automatically

Note:

(A) A compliance framework maps to a set of compliance standards that perform a collection of checks following broadly accepted best practices to ensure that IT infrastructure, applications, business services and processes are organized, configured, managed, and monitored correctly. A compliance standard evaluation can provide information related to platform compatibility, known issues affecting other customers with similar configurations, security vulnerabilities, patch recommendations, and more. Customers can run an evaluation of compliance standards in order to learn about how they can bring their systems into compliance with recommended best practices and improve the stability and security of their systems.

Reference: Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control Extensibility Programmer\’s Guide, About the Compliance Management Solution


Question 14:

Identify three key capabilities of Oracle Enterprise Manager for Packaged Applications Management.

A. Monitoring of application and troubleshooting of core components

B. Control of application configuration and change

C. Management of applications based on business goals

D. Management of application code and version control

E. Application license monitoring

F. Application communication security

Correct Answer: ABD

Note:

* Oracle provides advanced, out-of-the-box application management solutions for Oracle E- Business Suite, Siebel, Peoplesoft, JD Edwards, and Fusion Applications. They provide end-to- end, integrated application monitoring (A) and management capabilities, resulting in improved availability, predictability, and reliability. Oracle Enterprise Manager\’s management capabilities include user experience management, performance management, change and configuration management (B), patching, provisioning, testing, integrated diagnostics and automatic tuning. Enterprise Manager also offers advanced management capabilities for managing custom applications, integrations and extensions. Capabilities such as Business Transaction Management (BTM), JVM Diagnostics (JVMD) and others are presented in further detail in the “Applications Performance Management” section.


Question 15:

Identify two true statements about the setup and use of identity management within Oracle Enterprise manager.

A. Credentials are used to access targets that are monitored and managed by Oracle Enterprise Manager.

B. Repository-Base Authentication is the default authentication.

C. Single Sign-On Authentication is the default authentication.

D. Credentials are used as the root of the data masking key.

E. Using the SCOTT/TIGER identify, you can demonstrate but not configure Oracle Enterprise Manager.

Correct Answer: AB

B: You can also monitor the performance of the Oracle Identity Manager Repository and keep track of the number of newly provisioned/created/deleted/disabled/locked users, as well as the number of newly initiated requests.


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Question 1:

View the exhibits.

Examine the output of sar command and the top command in the Exhibits. Which statement is the correct interpretation of this data?

A. The system is running low on swap space and memory.

B. CPU is Idle and the system has plenty of free memory available.

C. The CPU utilization is high and one process is using most of the CPU.

D. The system is idle with very little memory, CPU, and I/O utilization.

Correct Answer: C

From the top exhibit we see that npviewer.gin uses 73.4% of the available CPU. Note:

*

sar – Collect, report, or save system activity information.

*

The sar command writes to standard output the contents of selected cumulative activity counters in the operating system. The accounting system, based on the values in the count and interval parameters, writes information the specified

number of times spaced at the specified intervals in seconds.

*

sar u 2 5

Report CPU utilization for each 2 seconds. 5 lines are displayed.